Partial Derivative and fraction












0














In the George F Simmons Calculus with Analytical Geometry, textbook, it is mentioned that the Partial derivatives of a function cannot be treated as fractions as in case of single variable function.



In the example provided it has been proved that,



from
$pV = nRT$

where,
- p - pressure

- T - Temperature

- V - Volume

- n - number of moles

- R - Universal gas constant



$dfrac{partial{p}}{partial{T}} dfrac{partial{T}}{partial{V}} dfrac{partial{V}}{partial{p}} = -1$



which is fine, but in the explanation, it is given as,
as the right hand side is -1 and not 1 we cannot treat the LHS of the above statement as fractions



If I am not wrong the 1st statement would mean, we cannot expand a partial differential as say,
$dfrac{d y}{d t} = dfrac{dy}{dx}dfrac{dx}{dt}$, where, $y=y(x)$ and $x = x(t)$,for a single variable function and we cannot represent the same for partial differentials the same manner if $y = y(x,t)$



What what is the significance of +1 or -1 for a differential to represented as a fraction?










share|cite|improve this question





























    0














    In the George F Simmons Calculus with Analytical Geometry, textbook, it is mentioned that the Partial derivatives of a function cannot be treated as fractions as in case of single variable function.



    In the example provided it has been proved that,



    from
    $pV = nRT$

    where,
    - p - pressure

    - T - Temperature

    - V - Volume

    - n - number of moles

    - R - Universal gas constant



    $dfrac{partial{p}}{partial{T}} dfrac{partial{T}}{partial{V}} dfrac{partial{V}}{partial{p}} = -1$



    which is fine, but in the explanation, it is given as,
    as the right hand side is -1 and not 1 we cannot treat the LHS of the above statement as fractions



    If I am not wrong the 1st statement would mean, we cannot expand a partial differential as say,
    $dfrac{d y}{d t} = dfrac{dy}{dx}dfrac{dx}{dt}$, where, $y=y(x)$ and $x = x(t)$,for a single variable function and we cannot represent the same for partial differentials the same manner if $y = y(x,t)$



    What what is the significance of +1 or -1 for a differential to represented as a fraction?










    share|cite|improve this question



























      0












      0








      0







      In the George F Simmons Calculus with Analytical Geometry, textbook, it is mentioned that the Partial derivatives of a function cannot be treated as fractions as in case of single variable function.



      In the example provided it has been proved that,



      from
      $pV = nRT$

      where,
      - p - pressure

      - T - Temperature

      - V - Volume

      - n - number of moles

      - R - Universal gas constant



      $dfrac{partial{p}}{partial{T}} dfrac{partial{T}}{partial{V}} dfrac{partial{V}}{partial{p}} = -1$



      which is fine, but in the explanation, it is given as,
      as the right hand side is -1 and not 1 we cannot treat the LHS of the above statement as fractions



      If I am not wrong the 1st statement would mean, we cannot expand a partial differential as say,
      $dfrac{d y}{d t} = dfrac{dy}{dx}dfrac{dx}{dt}$, where, $y=y(x)$ and $x = x(t)$,for a single variable function and we cannot represent the same for partial differentials the same manner if $y = y(x,t)$



      What what is the significance of +1 or -1 for a differential to represented as a fraction?










      share|cite|improve this question















      In the George F Simmons Calculus with Analytical Geometry, textbook, it is mentioned that the Partial derivatives of a function cannot be treated as fractions as in case of single variable function.



      In the example provided it has been proved that,



      from
      $pV = nRT$

      where,
      - p - pressure

      - T - Temperature

      - V - Volume

      - n - number of moles

      - R - Universal gas constant



      $dfrac{partial{p}}{partial{T}} dfrac{partial{T}}{partial{V}} dfrac{partial{V}}{partial{p}} = -1$



      which is fine, but in the explanation, it is given as,
      as the right hand side is -1 and not 1 we cannot treat the LHS of the above statement as fractions



      If I am not wrong the 1st statement would mean, we cannot expand a partial differential as say,
      $dfrac{d y}{d t} = dfrac{dy}{dx}dfrac{dx}{dt}$, where, $y=y(x)$ and $x = x(t)$,for a single variable function and we cannot represent the same for partial differentials the same manner if $y = y(x,t)$



      What what is the significance of +1 or -1 for a differential to represented as a fraction?







      pde partial-derivative






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      share|cite|improve this question













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      edited Jan 1 at 5:34







      Raptor

















      asked Jan 1 at 5:23









      RaptorRaptor

      3317




      3317






















          2 Answers
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          active

          oldest

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          0














          Yes. $$dfrac{partial{x}}{partial{y}} dfrac{partial{y}}{partial{x}} neq dfrac{partial{x}}{partial{z}}$$
          The equation above is an example to this phenomenon.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Does it just mean that the whole thing wont cancel out to give us 1 thus, cannot be represented as a fraction?
            – Raptor
            Jan 1 at 5:47










          • Yes true. You can't think of them as fraction, otherwise the product must be $1$ which is not the case.
            – mouthetics
            Jan 1 at 5:50





















          0














          Although there's nothing wrong with the answer from mouthetics I would like to expand on something: ultimately what allows you to go from the lhs to rhs is the chain rule. For example, if $y = y(x, t)$ and $x = x(t)$ then



          $$
          frac{{rm d}y}{{rm d} t} = frac{partial y}{partial x}frac{{rm d}x}{{rm d}t} + frac{partial y}{partial t}
          $$



          However, consider this other case. Imagine a function $f(x, y, z) = 0$. Now suppose you can invert this relation to obtain $z = z(x, y)$, if you apply the chain rule you will get



          $$
          {rm d}z = left(frac{partial z}{partial x}right)_{y}{rm d}x + left(frac{partial z}{partial y}right)_x{rm d}y tag{1}
          $$



          where I have used the script to indicate that variable remains fixed. Suppose now that you move along a path on the surface $f(x,y,z) = 0$, where $z$ is kept constant. In this case you can also invert the function $f$ to obtain $y = y(x)$ and



          $$
          {rm d}y = left(frac{partial y}{partial x}right)_z{rm d}x tag{2}
          $$



          Here it is more obvious why this notation is useful, it emphasizes the fact that we keep $z$ constant. Replace that in (1) with ${rm d}z = 0$ (remember, $z$ is constant) and you will get



          $$
          0 = left(frac{partial z}{partial x}right)_{y}{rm d}x + left(frac{partial z}{partial y}right)_x left(frac{partial y}{partial x}right)_z{rm d}x tag{3}
          $$



          And from here is trivial to obtain



          $$
          left(frac{partial x}{partial y}right)_z left(frac{partial y}{partial z}right)_x left(frac{partial z}{partial x}right)_y = -1 tag{4}
          $$



          Note that this is a result of consistently using the chain rule, and keeping track what function depends on what variables.



          In your case just set $x = P, y = V, z = T$, the function $f(x,y,z)$ is called a equation of state






          share|cite|improve this answer





















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            2 Answers
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            2 Answers
            2






            active

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            active

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            active

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            0














            Yes. $$dfrac{partial{x}}{partial{y}} dfrac{partial{y}}{partial{x}} neq dfrac{partial{x}}{partial{z}}$$
            The equation above is an example to this phenomenon.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • Does it just mean that the whole thing wont cancel out to give us 1 thus, cannot be represented as a fraction?
              – Raptor
              Jan 1 at 5:47










            • Yes true. You can't think of them as fraction, otherwise the product must be $1$ which is not the case.
              – mouthetics
              Jan 1 at 5:50


















            0














            Yes. $$dfrac{partial{x}}{partial{y}} dfrac{partial{y}}{partial{x}} neq dfrac{partial{x}}{partial{z}}$$
            The equation above is an example to this phenomenon.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • Does it just mean that the whole thing wont cancel out to give us 1 thus, cannot be represented as a fraction?
              – Raptor
              Jan 1 at 5:47










            • Yes true. You can't think of them as fraction, otherwise the product must be $1$ which is not the case.
              – mouthetics
              Jan 1 at 5:50
















            0












            0








            0






            Yes. $$dfrac{partial{x}}{partial{y}} dfrac{partial{y}}{partial{x}} neq dfrac{partial{x}}{partial{z}}$$
            The equation above is an example to this phenomenon.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            Yes. $$dfrac{partial{x}}{partial{y}} dfrac{partial{y}}{partial{x}} neq dfrac{partial{x}}{partial{z}}$$
            The equation above is an example to this phenomenon.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Jan 1 at 5:44









            moutheticsmouthetics

            50127




            50127












            • Does it just mean that the whole thing wont cancel out to give us 1 thus, cannot be represented as a fraction?
              – Raptor
              Jan 1 at 5:47










            • Yes true. You can't think of them as fraction, otherwise the product must be $1$ which is not the case.
              – mouthetics
              Jan 1 at 5:50




















            • Does it just mean that the whole thing wont cancel out to give us 1 thus, cannot be represented as a fraction?
              – Raptor
              Jan 1 at 5:47










            • Yes true. You can't think of them as fraction, otherwise the product must be $1$ which is not the case.
              – mouthetics
              Jan 1 at 5:50


















            Does it just mean that the whole thing wont cancel out to give us 1 thus, cannot be represented as a fraction?
            – Raptor
            Jan 1 at 5:47




            Does it just mean that the whole thing wont cancel out to give us 1 thus, cannot be represented as a fraction?
            – Raptor
            Jan 1 at 5:47












            Yes true. You can't think of them as fraction, otherwise the product must be $1$ which is not the case.
            – mouthetics
            Jan 1 at 5:50






            Yes true. You can't think of them as fraction, otherwise the product must be $1$ which is not the case.
            – mouthetics
            Jan 1 at 5:50













            0














            Although there's nothing wrong with the answer from mouthetics I would like to expand on something: ultimately what allows you to go from the lhs to rhs is the chain rule. For example, if $y = y(x, t)$ and $x = x(t)$ then



            $$
            frac{{rm d}y}{{rm d} t} = frac{partial y}{partial x}frac{{rm d}x}{{rm d}t} + frac{partial y}{partial t}
            $$



            However, consider this other case. Imagine a function $f(x, y, z) = 0$. Now suppose you can invert this relation to obtain $z = z(x, y)$, if you apply the chain rule you will get



            $$
            {rm d}z = left(frac{partial z}{partial x}right)_{y}{rm d}x + left(frac{partial z}{partial y}right)_x{rm d}y tag{1}
            $$



            where I have used the script to indicate that variable remains fixed. Suppose now that you move along a path on the surface $f(x,y,z) = 0$, where $z$ is kept constant. In this case you can also invert the function $f$ to obtain $y = y(x)$ and



            $$
            {rm d}y = left(frac{partial y}{partial x}right)_z{rm d}x tag{2}
            $$



            Here it is more obvious why this notation is useful, it emphasizes the fact that we keep $z$ constant. Replace that in (1) with ${rm d}z = 0$ (remember, $z$ is constant) and you will get



            $$
            0 = left(frac{partial z}{partial x}right)_{y}{rm d}x + left(frac{partial z}{partial y}right)_x left(frac{partial y}{partial x}right)_z{rm d}x tag{3}
            $$



            And from here is trivial to obtain



            $$
            left(frac{partial x}{partial y}right)_z left(frac{partial y}{partial z}right)_x left(frac{partial z}{partial x}right)_y = -1 tag{4}
            $$



            Note that this is a result of consistently using the chain rule, and keeping track what function depends on what variables.



            In your case just set $x = P, y = V, z = T$, the function $f(x,y,z)$ is called a equation of state






            share|cite|improve this answer


























              0














              Although there's nothing wrong with the answer from mouthetics I would like to expand on something: ultimately what allows you to go from the lhs to rhs is the chain rule. For example, if $y = y(x, t)$ and $x = x(t)$ then



              $$
              frac{{rm d}y}{{rm d} t} = frac{partial y}{partial x}frac{{rm d}x}{{rm d}t} + frac{partial y}{partial t}
              $$



              However, consider this other case. Imagine a function $f(x, y, z) = 0$. Now suppose you can invert this relation to obtain $z = z(x, y)$, if you apply the chain rule you will get



              $$
              {rm d}z = left(frac{partial z}{partial x}right)_{y}{rm d}x + left(frac{partial z}{partial y}right)_x{rm d}y tag{1}
              $$



              where I have used the script to indicate that variable remains fixed. Suppose now that you move along a path on the surface $f(x,y,z) = 0$, where $z$ is kept constant. In this case you can also invert the function $f$ to obtain $y = y(x)$ and



              $$
              {rm d}y = left(frac{partial y}{partial x}right)_z{rm d}x tag{2}
              $$



              Here it is more obvious why this notation is useful, it emphasizes the fact that we keep $z$ constant. Replace that in (1) with ${rm d}z = 0$ (remember, $z$ is constant) and you will get



              $$
              0 = left(frac{partial z}{partial x}right)_{y}{rm d}x + left(frac{partial z}{partial y}right)_x left(frac{partial y}{partial x}right)_z{rm d}x tag{3}
              $$



              And from here is trivial to obtain



              $$
              left(frac{partial x}{partial y}right)_z left(frac{partial y}{partial z}right)_x left(frac{partial z}{partial x}right)_y = -1 tag{4}
              $$



              Note that this is a result of consistently using the chain rule, and keeping track what function depends on what variables.



              In your case just set $x = P, y = V, z = T$, the function $f(x,y,z)$ is called a equation of state






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                0












                0








                0






                Although there's nothing wrong with the answer from mouthetics I would like to expand on something: ultimately what allows you to go from the lhs to rhs is the chain rule. For example, if $y = y(x, t)$ and $x = x(t)$ then



                $$
                frac{{rm d}y}{{rm d} t} = frac{partial y}{partial x}frac{{rm d}x}{{rm d}t} + frac{partial y}{partial t}
                $$



                However, consider this other case. Imagine a function $f(x, y, z) = 0$. Now suppose you can invert this relation to obtain $z = z(x, y)$, if you apply the chain rule you will get



                $$
                {rm d}z = left(frac{partial z}{partial x}right)_{y}{rm d}x + left(frac{partial z}{partial y}right)_x{rm d}y tag{1}
                $$



                where I have used the script to indicate that variable remains fixed. Suppose now that you move along a path on the surface $f(x,y,z) = 0$, where $z$ is kept constant. In this case you can also invert the function $f$ to obtain $y = y(x)$ and



                $$
                {rm d}y = left(frac{partial y}{partial x}right)_z{rm d}x tag{2}
                $$



                Here it is more obvious why this notation is useful, it emphasizes the fact that we keep $z$ constant. Replace that in (1) with ${rm d}z = 0$ (remember, $z$ is constant) and you will get



                $$
                0 = left(frac{partial z}{partial x}right)_{y}{rm d}x + left(frac{partial z}{partial y}right)_x left(frac{partial y}{partial x}right)_z{rm d}x tag{3}
                $$



                And from here is trivial to obtain



                $$
                left(frac{partial x}{partial y}right)_z left(frac{partial y}{partial z}right)_x left(frac{partial z}{partial x}right)_y = -1 tag{4}
                $$



                Note that this is a result of consistently using the chain rule, and keeping track what function depends on what variables.



                In your case just set $x = P, y = V, z = T$, the function $f(x,y,z)$ is called a equation of state






                share|cite|improve this answer












                Although there's nothing wrong with the answer from mouthetics I would like to expand on something: ultimately what allows you to go from the lhs to rhs is the chain rule. For example, if $y = y(x, t)$ and $x = x(t)$ then



                $$
                frac{{rm d}y}{{rm d} t} = frac{partial y}{partial x}frac{{rm d}x}{{rm d}t} + frac{partial y}{partial t}
                $$



                However, consider this other case. Imagine a function $f(x, y, z) = 0$. Now suppose you can invert this relation to obtain $z = z(x, y)$, if you apply the chain rule you will get



                $$
                {rm d}z = left(frac{partial z}{partial x}right)_{y}{rm d}x + left(frac{partial z}{partial y}right)_x{rm d}y tag{1}
                $$



                where I have used the script to indicate that variable remains fixed. Suppose now that you move along a path on the surface $f(x,y,z) = 0$, where $z$ is kept constant. In this case you can also invert the function $f$ to obtain $y = y(x)$ and



                $$
                {rm d}y = left(frac{partial y}{partial x}right)_z{rm d}x tag{2}
                $$



                Here it is more obvious why this notation is useful, it emphasizes the fact that we keep $z$ constant. Replace that in (1) with ${rm d}z = 0$ (remember, $z$ is constant) and you will get



                $$
                0 = left(frac{partial z}{partial x}right)_{y}{rm d}x + left(frac{partial z}{partial y}right)_x left(frac{partial y}{partial x}right)_z{rm d}x tag{3}
                $$



                And from here is trivial to obtain



                $$
                left(frac{partial x}{partial y}right)_z left(frac{partial y}{partial z}right)_x left(frac{partial z}{partial x}right)_y = -1 tag{4}
                $$



                Note that this is a result of consistently using the chain rule, and keeping track what function depends on what variables.



                In your case just set $x = P, y = V, z = T$, the function $f(x,y,z)$ is called a equation of state







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Jan 1 at 10:49









                caveraccaverac

                14.1k21130




                14.1k21130






























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