Discrete Time “Girsanov” with sub-Gaussian noise












0












$begingroup$


Context



I seem to recall from a course in stochastic calculus a few years back that for a random vector $X_t$ with dynamics
$$dX_t = f(x_t)dt + g_t dW_t$$
where $W$ is $mathbb{P}$-wiener there exists another measure $mathbb{Q}$ such that $X_t$ is a martingale under this measure (under suitable conditions on $f,g$).



Question



Currently, I find myself in a position where (super)-"martingalizing" a discrete time process seems useful. The setting is as follows: I have given myself a space $(Omega, (mathcal{F_t}), mathbb{P})$ and I consider the process
$$
X_{t+1}=f(X_t)+eta_t Leftrightarrow X_{t+1}-X_t=f(X_t)-X_t+eta_t
$$

where $eta_t$ is independent $sigma^2$-sub-gaussian noise, $mathbb{E} [e^{lambda
p eta_t}] leq e^{lambda ^2 sigma^2/2}$
for all the one-dimensional projections $p eta_t$. The function $f$ should be reasonable for the setting (I guess be measurable and satisfy some discrete analogue of Novikov).



Now, my hunch is that I might not be able to find $mathbb{Q}$ such that $Y_t = CX_t$ becomes a martingale (with a deterministic matrix $C$) - but maybe at least a supermartingale (the end user will be large deviation so I don't really care about it being a martingale, super will do)? I saw the answer to
Discrete and continuous Girsanov
however, the setting to that answer seems considerably simpler (using predictability).



Progress



I was considering that if one defines, for some $phi_t$, analogously to the continuous case
$$
L_t = expleft(sum_{k=1}^tlangle phi_k, W_k rangle-frac{1}{2}sum_{k=1}^tlangle phi_k, phi_k rangle right)
$$

the following computation could go through...



begin{align*}mathbb{E}[CX_{t+1}L_{t+1}|mathcal{F_t}]&=CL_tmathbb{E}[X_{t+1}e^{langlephi_{t+1},phi_{t+1}rangle-langle phi_{t+1},eta_{t+1}rangle/2}|mathcal{F_t}] \
&= dots \
&leq CX_t L_t,
end{align*}

for a clever choice of $phi_t$ by using the sub-gaussian property - but as for the "$dots$" i am stuck on:




  • Can I actually deal with the nonlinearity at all? We can in the continuous case so should be possible I feel?

  • What is the correct choice of kernel $phi_t$?


I would very much appreciate any help for proving/disproving the above inequality. NB, I know I have been sloppy in defining $f$. If one absolutely requires another property such as convexity to answer the question I am willing to admit the property (even though I obviously would prefer this not to be necessary...).










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    Context



    I seem to recall from a course in stochastic calculus a few years back that for a random vector $X_t$ with dynamics
    $$dX_t = f(x_t)dt + g_t dW_t$$
    where $W$ is $mathbb{P}$-wiener there exists another measure $mathbb{Q}$ such that $X_t$ is a martingale under this measure (under suitable conditions on $f,g$).



    Question



    Currently, I find myself in a position where (super)-"martingalizing" a discrete time process seems useful. The setting is as follows: I have given myself a space $(Omega, (mathcal{F_t}), mathbb{P})$ and I consider the process
    $$
    X_{t+1}=f(X_t)+eta_t Leftrightarrow X_{t+1}-X_t=f(X_t)-X_t+eta_t
    $$

    where $eta_t$ is independent $sigma^2$-sub-gaussian noise, $mathbb{E} [e^{lambda
    p eta_t}] leq e^{lambda ^2 sigma^2/2}$
    for all the one-dimensional projections $p eta_t$. The function $f$ should be reasonable for the setting (I guess be measurable and satisfy some discrete analogue of Novikov).



    Now, my hunch is that I might not be able to find $mathbb{Q}$ such that $Y_t = CX_t$ becomes a martingale (with a deterministic matrix $C$) - but maybe at least a supermartingale (the end user will be large deviation so I don't really care about it being a martingale, super will do)? I saw the answer to
    Discrete and continuous Girsanov
    however, the setting to that answer seems considerably simpler (using predictability).



    Progress



    I was considering that if one defines, for some $phi_t$, analogously to the continuous case
    $$
    L_t = expleft(sum_{k=1}^tlangle phi_k, W_k rangle-frac{1}{2}sum_{k=1}^tlangle phi_k, phi_k rangle right)
    $$

    the following computation could go through...



    begin{align*}mathbb{E}[CX_{t+1}L_{t+1}|mathcal{F_t}]&=CL_tmathbb{E}[X_{t+1}e^{langlephi_{t+1},phi_{t+1}rangle-langle phi_{t+1},eta_{t+1}rangle/2}|mathcal{F_t}] \
    &= dots \
    &leq CX_t L_t,
    end{align*}

    for a clever choice of $phi_t$ by using the sub-gaussian property - but as for the "$dots$" i am stuck on:




    • Can I actually deal with the nonlinearity at all? We can in the continuous case so should be possible I feel?

    • What is the correct choice of kernel $phi_t$?


    I would very much appreciate any help for proving/disproving the above inequality. NB, I know I have been sloppy in defining $f$. If one absolutely requires another property such as convexity to answer the question I am willing to admit the property (even though I obviously would prefer this not to be necessary...).










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Context



      I seem to recall from a course in stochastic calculus a few years back that for a random vector $X_t$ with dynamics
      $$dX_t = f(x_t)dt + g_t dW_t$$
      where $W$ is $mathbb{P}$-wiener there exists another measure $mathbb{Q}$ such that $X_t$ is a martingale under this measure (under suitable conditions on $f,g$).



      Question



      Currently, I find myself in a position where (super)-"martingalizing" a discrete time process seems useful. The setting is as follows: I have given myself a space $(Omega, (mathcal{F_t}), mathbb{P})$ and I consider the process
      $$
      X_{t+1}=f(X_t)+eta_t Leftrightarrow X_{t+1}-X_t=f(X_t)-X_t+eta_t
      $$

      where $eta_t$ is independent $sigma^2$-sub-gaussian noise, $mathbb{E} [e^{lambda
      p eta_t}] leq e^{lambda ^2 sigma^2/2}$
      for all the one-dimensional projections $p eta_t$. The function $f$ should be reasonable for the setting (I guess be measurable and satisfy some discrete analogue of Novikov).



      Now, my hunch is that I might not be able to find $mathbb{Q}$ such that $Y_t = CX_t$ becomes a martingale (with a deterministic matrix $C$) - but maybe at least a supermartingale (the end user will be large deviation so I don't really care about it being a martingale, super will do)? I saw the answer to
      Discrete and continuous Girsanov
      however, the setting to that answer seems considerably simpler (using predictability).



      Progress



      I was considering that if one defines, for some $phi_t$, analogously to the continuous case
      $$
      L_t = expleft(sum_{k=1}^tlangle phi_k, W_k rangle-frac{1}{2}sum_{k=1}^tlangle phi_k, phi_k rangle right)
      $$

      the following computation could go through...



      begin{align*}mathbb{E}[CX_{t+1}L_{t+1}|mathcal{F_t}]&=CL_tmathbb{E}[X_{t+1}e^{langlephi_{t+1},phi_{t+1}rangle-langle phi_{t+1},eta_{t+1}rangle/2}|mathcal{F_t}] \
      &= dots \
      &leq CX_t L_t,
      end{align*}

      for a clever choice of $phi_t$ by using the sub-gaussian property - but as for the "$dots$" i am stuck on:




      • Can I actually deal with the nonlinearity at all? We can in the continuous case so should be possible I feel?

      • What is the correct choice of kernel $phi_t$?


      I would very much appreciate any help for proving/disproving the above inequality. NB, I know I have been sloppy in defining $f$. If one absolutely requires another property such as convexity to answer the question I am willing to admit the property (even though I obviously would prefer this not to be necessary...).










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Context



      I seem to recall from a course in stochastic calculus a few years back that for a random vector $X_t$ with dynamics
      $$dX_t = f(x_t)dt + g_t dW_t$$
      where $W$ is $mathbb{P}$-wiener there exists another measure $mathbb{Q}$ such that $X_t$ is a martingale under this measure (under suitable conditions on $f,g$).



      Question



      Currently, I find myself in a position where (super)-"martingalizing" a discrete time process seems useful. The setting is as follows: I have given myself a space $(Omega, (mathcal{F_t}), mathbb{P})$ and I consider the process
      $$
      X_{t+1}=f(X_t)+eta_t Leftrightarrow X_{t+1}-X_t=f(X_t)-X_t+eta_t
      $$

      where $eta_t$ is independent $sigma^2$-sub-gaussian noise, $mathbb{E} [e^{lambda
      p eta_t}] leq e^{lambda ^2 sigma^2/2}$
      for all the one-dimensional projections $p eta_t$. The function $f$ should be reasonable for the setting (I guess be measurable and satisfy some discrete analogue of Novikov).



      Now, my hunch is that I might not be able to find $mathbb{Q}$ such that $Y_t = CX_t$ becomes a martingale (with a deterministic matrix $C$) - but maybe at least a supermartingale (the end user will be large deviation so I don't really care about it being a martingale, super will do)? I saw the answer to
      Discrete and continuous Girsanov
      however, the setting to that answer seems considerably simpler (using predictability).



      Progress



      I was considering that if one defines, for some $phi_t$, analogously to the continuous case
      $$
      L_t = expleft(sum_{k=1}^tlangle phi_k, W_k rangle-frac{1}{2}sum_{k=1}^tlangle phi_k, phi_k rangle right)
      $$

      the following computation could go through...



      begin{align*}mathbb{E}[CX_{t+1}L_{t+1}|mathcal{F_t}]&=CL_tmathbb{E}[X_{t+1}e^{langlephi_{t+1},phi_{t+1}rangle-langle phi_{t+1},eta_{t+1}rangle/2}|mathcal{F_t}] \
      &= dots \
      &leq CX_t L_t,
      end{align*}

      for a clever choice of $phi_t$ by using the sub-gaussian property - but as for the "$dots$" i am stuck on:




      • Can I actually deal with the nonlinearity at all? We can in the continuous case so should be possible I feel?

      • What is the correct choice of kernel $phi_t$?


      I would very much appreciate any help for proving/disproving the above inequality. NB, I know I have been sloppy in defining $f$. If one absolutely requires another property such as convexity to answer the question I am willing to admit the property (even though I obviously would prefer this not to be necessary...).







      probability stochastic-processes stochastic-calculus






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











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      asked Jan 13 at 19:46









      sortofamathematiciansortofamathematician

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