Inequality properties between their multiplications [on hold]











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If $A>B>C>D$ then will $$(A/B * A/C * A/D) > (B/A * B/C * B/D) > (C/A * C/B * C/D) > (D/A * D/B * D/C)$$ be always true? If not, in what intervals will it not be true?



Obviously $A,B,C,D geq 0$ and they take values in the interval of ${Bbb R}_+$, that is positive real numbers only.










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put on hold as unclear what you're asking by amWhy, Mark, Zvi, Rebellos, Shailesh 15 hours ago


Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.



















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    If $A>B>C>D$ then will $$(A/B * A/C * A/D) > (B/A * B/C * B/D) > (C/A * C/B * C/D) > (D/A * D/B * D/C)$$ be always true? If not, in what intervals will it not be true?



    Obviously $A,B,C,D geq 0$ and they take values in the interval of ${Bbb R}_+$, that is positive real numbers only.










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    mathamateur621 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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    put on hold as unclear what you're asking by amWhy, Mark, Zvi, Rebellos, Shailesh 15 hours ago


    Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

















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      If $A>B>C>D$ then will $$(A/B * A/C * A/D) > (B/A * B/C * B/D) > (C/A * C/B * C/D) > (D/A * D/B * D/C)$$ be always true? If not, in what intervals will it not be true?



      Obviously $A,B,C,D geq 0$ and they take values in the interval of ${Bbb R}_+$, that is positive real numbers only.










      share|cite|improve this question









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      mathamateur621 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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      If $A>B>C>D$ then will $$(A/B * A/C * A/D) > (B/A * B/C * B/D) > (C/A * C/B * C/D) > (D/A * D/B * D/C)$$ be always true? If not, in what intervals will it not be true?



      Obviously $A,B,C,D geq 0$ and they take values in the interval of ${Bbb R}_+$, that is positive real numbers only.







      inequality universal-property






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      edited yesterday









      Wuestenfux

      2,3541410




      2,3541410






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      asked yesterday









      mathamateur621

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      put on hold as unclear what you're asking by amWhy, Mark, Zvi, Rebellos, Shailesh 15 hours ago


      Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.






      put on hold as unclear what you're asking by amWhy, Mark, Zvi, Rebellos, Shailesh 15 hours ago


      Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
























          2 Answers
          2






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          First of all, we're dividing by $A,B,C,D$ so none can be $0$. Hence, in this answer, we assume $A,B,C,D>0$.




          Anyway, since $A>B>C>D>0$, we know that

          $$A^4>B^4>C^4>D^4$$



          and now since $ABCD>0$, we may divide by $ABCD$ without flipping any signs:



          $$frac{A^3}{BCD}>frac{B^3}{ACD}>frac{C^3}{ABD}>frac{D^3}{ABC}$$



          which is the exact same as the thing you were trying to prove.






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            Yes---compare term by term e.g. $A/B > B/A$, $A/C > B/C$, $A/D > B/D$ which will give you the first result, and so on.






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              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes








              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes








              up vote
              1
              down vote













              First of all, we're dividing by $A,B,C,D$ so none can be $0$. Hence, in this answer, we assume $A,B,C,D>0$.




              Anyway, since $A>B>C>D>0$, we know that

              $$A^4>B^4>C^4>D^4$$



              and now since $ABCD>0$, we may divide by $ABCD$ without flipping any signs:



              $$frac{A^3}{BCD}>frac{B^3}{ACD}>frac{C^3}{ABD}>frac{D^3}{ABC}$$



              which is the exact same as the thing you were trying to prove.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                1
                down vote













                First of all, we're dividing by $A,B,C,D$ so none can be $0$. Hence, in this answer, we assume $A,B,C,D>0$.




                Anyway, since $A>B>C>D>0$, we know that

                $$A^4>B^4>C^4>D^4$$



                and now since $ABCD>0$, we may divide by $ABCD$ without flipping any signs:



                $$frac{A^3}{BCD}>frac{B^3}{ACD}>frac{C^3}{ABD}>frac{D^3}{ABC}$$



                which is the exact same as the thing you were trying to prove.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote









                  First of all, we're dividing by $A,B,C,D$ so none can be $0$. Hence, in this answer, we assume $A,B,C,D>0$.




                  Anyway, since $A>B>C>D>0$, we know that

                  $$A^4>B^4>C^4>D^4$$



                  and now since $ABCD>0$, we may divide by $ABCD$ without flipping any signs:



                  $$frac{A^3}{BCD}>frac{B^3}{ACD}>frac{C^3}{ABD}>frac{D^3}{ABC}$$



                  which is the exact same as the thing you were trying to prove.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  First of all, we're dividing by $A,B,C,D$ so none can be $0$. Hence, in this answer, we assume $A,B,C,D>0$.




                  Anyway, since $A>B>C>D>0$, we know that

                  $$A^4>B^4>C^4>D^4$$



                  and now since $ABCD>0$, we may divide by $ABCD$ without flipping any signs:



                  $$frac{A^3}{BCD}>frac{B^3}{ACD}>frac{C^3}{ABD}>frac{D^3}{ABC}$$



                  which is the exact same as the thing you were trying to prove.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered yesterday









                  vrugtehagel

                  10.7k1549




                  10.7k1549






















                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote













                      Yes---compare term by term e.g. $A/B > B/A$, $A/C > B/C$, $A/D > B/D$ which will give you the first result, and so on.






                      share|cite|improve this answer

























                        up vote
                        0
                        down vote













                        Yes---compare term by term e.g. $A/B > B/A$, $A/C > B/C$, $A/D > B/D$ which will give you the first result, and so on.






                        share|cite|improve this answer























                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote









                          Yes---compare term by term e.g. $A/B > B/A$, $A/C > B/C$, $A/D > B/D$ which will give you the first result, and so on.






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          Yes---compare term by term e.g. $A/B > B/A$, $A/C > B/C$, $A/D > B/D$ which will give you the first result, and so on.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered yesterday









                          Richard Martin

                          1,3138




                          1,3138















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