Show that a Banach space $X$ is not reflexive if a closed subspace of its dual separates the points of $X$












2












$begingroup$


Given a Banach space $X$ and a closed subspace $Z$ of $X^*$ such that $Z neq X^*$, suppose that $Z$ separates the points of $X$, I mean:



$x in X, , , , x^*(x) = 0 , , forall x^* in Z implies x=0$.



Show that $X$ is not reflexive.



With $X^*$ I mean the dual of $X$.



Any suggestion? This is a functional analysis exercise about duality and reflexivity but I don’t know how to show that the given Banach space is not reflexive










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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In one place you say 'show that $X$ is not reflexive' and in two other places you ask us to show that $X$ is reflexive.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 3 at 9:33










  • $begingroup$
    You still have a mistake in the last part.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 3 at 9:42
















2












$begingroup$


Given a Banach space $X$ and a closed subspace $Z$ of $X^*$ such that $Z neq X^*$, suppose that $Z$ separates the points of $X$, I mean:



$x in X, , , , x^*(x) = 0 , , forall x^* in Z implies x=0$.



Show that $X$ is not reflexive.



With $X^*$ I mean the dual of $X$.



Any suggestion? This is a functional analysis exercise about duality and reflexivity but I don’t know how to show that the given Banach space is not reflexive










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In one place you say 'show that $X$ is not reflexive' and in two other places you ask us to show that $X$ is reflexive.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 3 at 9:33










  • $begingroup$
    You still have a mistake in the last part.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 3 at 9:42














2












2








2





$begingroup$


Given a Banach space $X$ and a closed subspace $Z$ of $X^*$ such that $Z neq X^*$, suppose that $Z$ separates the points of $X$, I mean:



$x in X, , , , x^*(x) = 0 , , forall x^* in Z implies x=0$.



Show that $X$ is not reflexive.



With $X^*$ I mean the dual of $X$.



Any suggestion? This is a functional analysis exercise about duality and reflexivity but I don’t know how to show that the given Banach space is not reflexive










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Given a Banach space $X$ and a closed subspace $Z$ of $X^*$ such that $Z neq X^*$, suppose that $Z$ separates the points of $X$, I mean:



$x in X, , , , x^*(x) = 0 , , forall x^* in Z implies x=0$.



Show that $X$ is not reflexive.



With $X^*$ I mean the dual of $X$.



Any suggestion? This is a functional analysis exercise about duality and reflexivity but I don’t know how to show that the given Banach space is not reflexive







functional-analysis banach-spaces separation-axioms dual-spaces reflexive-space






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edited Jan 3 at 9:45









Song

8,311625




8,311625










asked Jan 3 at 9:30









Maggie94Maggie94

876




876








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In one place you say 'show that $X$ is not reflexive' and in two other places you ask us to show that $X$ is reflexive.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 3 at 9:33










  • $begingroup$
    You still have a mistake in the last part.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 3 at 9:42














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In one place you say 'show that $X$ is not reflexive' and in two other places you ask us to show that $X$ is reflexive.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 3 at 9:33










  • $begingroup$
    You still have a mistake in the last part.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 3 at 9:42








1




1




$begingroup$
In one place you say 'show that $X$ is not reflexive' and in two other places you ask us to show that $X$ is reflexive.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 3 at 9:33




$begingroup$
In one place you say 'show that $X$ is not reflexive' and in two other places you ask us to show that $X$ is reflexive.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 3 at 9:33












$begingroup$
You still have a mistake in the last part.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 3 at 9:42




$begingroup$
You still have a mistake in the last part.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 3 at 9:42










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

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2












$begingroup$

It is in fact quite straightforward by the definition of a reflexive space and Hahn-Banach theorem. If $Zneq X^*$, then there exists $phi in X^{**}setminus{{0}}$ such that $phi$ vanishes on $Z$. If $X=X^{**}$, then $phi = x$ for some $xin X$ and this implies
$$
f(x) = 0
$$
for all $fin Z$. Since $Z$ separates points in $X$, it follows $x = 0 =phi$ contradicting $phi neq 0$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    1












    $begingroup$

    Consider $y$ which is not in $Z$ by Hahn Banach there exists $fin (X^*)^*$ such that $f(Z)=0, f(y)=1$, $f$ is not in $Xrightarrow (X^*)^*$ since if there exists $xin X$ such that $f(z)=z(x), z(x)=0$ for every $zin Z$ implies that $x=0$. Contradiction.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

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      active

      oldest

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      2












      $begingroup$

      It is in fact quite straightforward by the definition of a reflexive space and Hahn-Banach theorem. If $Zneq X^*$, then there exists $phi in X^{**}setminus{{0}}$ such that $phi$ vanishes on $Z$. If $X=X^{**}$, then $phi = x$ for some $xin X$ and this implies
      $$
      f(x) = 0
      $$
      for all $fin Z$. Since $Z$ separates points in $X$, it follows $x = 0 =phi$ contradicting $phi neq 0$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        2












        $begingroup$

        It is in fact quite straightforward by the definition of a reflexive space and Hahn-Banach theorem. If $Zneq X^*$, then there exists $phi in X^{**}setminus{{0}}$ such that $phi$ vanishes on $Z$. If $X=X^{**}$, then $phi = x$ for some $xin X$ and this implies
        $$
        f(x) = 0
        $$
        for all $fin Z$. Since $Z$ separates points in $X$, it follows $x = 0 =phi$ contradicting $phi neq 0$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          It is in fact quite straightforward by the definition of a reflexive space and Hahn-Banach theorem. If $Zneq X^*$, then there exists $phi in X^{**}setminus{{0}}$ such that $phi$ vanishes on $Z$. If $X=X^{**}$, then $phi = x$ for some $xin X$ and this implies
          $$
          f(x) = 0
          $$
          for all $fin Z$. Since $Z$ separates points in $X$, it follows $x = 0 =phi$ contradicting $phi neq 0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          It is in fact quite straightforward by the definition of a reflexive space and Hahn-Banach theorem. If $Zneq X^*$, then there exists $phi in X^{**}setminus{{0}}$ such that $phi$ vanishes on $Z$. If $X=X^{**}$, then $phi = x$ for some $xin X$ and this implies
          $$
          f(x) = 0
          $$
          for all $fin Z$. Since $Z$ separates points in $X$, it follows $x = 0 =phi$ contradicting $phi neq 0$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 3 at 9:45









          SongSong

          8,311625




          8,311625























              1












              $begingroup$

              Consider $y$ which is not in $Z$ by Hahn Banach there exists $fin (X^*)^*$ such that $f(Z)=0, f(y)=1$, $f$ is not in $Xrightarrow (X^*)^*$ since if there exists $xin X$ such that $f(z)=z(x), z(x)=0$ for every $zin Z$ implies that $x=0$. Contradiction.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                1












                $begingroup$

                Consider $y$ which is not in $Z$ by Hahn Banach there exists $fin (X^*)^*$ such that $f(Z)=0, f(y)=1$, $f$ is not in $Xrightarrow (X^*)^*$ since if there exists $xin X$ such that $f(z)=z(x), z(x)=0$ for every $zin Z$ implies that $x=0$. Contradiction.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  Consider $y$ which is not in $Z$ by Hahn Banach there exists $fin (X^*)^*$ such that $f(Z)=0, f(y)=1$, $f$ is not in $Xrightarrow (X^*)^*$ since if there exists $xin X$ such that $f(z)=z(x), z(x)=0$ for every $zin Z$ implies that $x=0$. Contradiction.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Consider $y$ which is not in $Z$ by Hahn Banach there exists $fin (X^*)^*$ such that $f(Z)=0, f(y)=1$, $f$ is not in $Xrightarrow (X^*)^*$ since if there exists $xin X$ such that $f(z)=z(x), z(x)=0$ for every $zin Z$ implies that $x=0$. Contradiction.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Jan 3 at 9:45









                  Tsemo AristideTsemo Aristide

                  56.9k11444




                  56.9k11444






























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