Are compilers allowed to optimize-out realloc?











up vote
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down vote

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I came across a situation where it would be useful to have unnecessary calls to realloc being optimized out. However, it seems like neither clang nor gcc do such a thing (godbolt). - Although I see optimizations being made with multiple calls to malloc.



The example:



void *myfunc() {
void *data;
data = malloc(100);
data = realloc(data, 200);
return data;
}


I expected it to be optimized to something like the following:



void *myfunc() {
return malloc(200);
}


Why is neither clang nor gcc optimizing it out? - Are they not allowed to do so?










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  • 10




    I would be really surprised it a compiler was allowed to remove calls to external functions. What if you link with your own library that implements malloc?
    – Gerhardh
    yesterday






  • 8




    @Gerhardh malloc is not an external function, it's a part of the standard library. Compilers are allowed to inline it or otherwise implement it however they wish.
    – n.m.
    yesterday






  • 8




    @Lundin: It is not true that a compiler is not allowed to optimize out a function call if the function contains any side effects. A compiler is not allowed to optimize away observable behavior. If a side effect (and its consequences) is not observable, it may be removed.
    – Eric Postpischil
    yesterday








  • 3




    @Lundin It would make sense, but, why are two consecutive calls to malloc/free optimized out (godbolt.org/z/gBVXcp)? That wouldn't be allowed if it had a side effect, would it?
    – Julius
    23 hours ago








  • 11




    @Lundin: An unobservable side effect is not needed.
    – Eric Postpischil
    23 hours ago















up vote
26
down vote

favorite
8












I came across a situation where it would be useful to have unnecessary calls to realloc being optimized out. However, it seems like neither clang nor gcc do such a thing (godbolt). - Although I see optimizations being made with multiple calls to malloc.



The example:



void *myfunc() {
void *data;
data = malloc(100);
data = realloc(data, 200);
return data;
}


I expected it to be optimized to something like the following:



void *myfunc() {
return malloc(200);
}


Why is neither clang nor gcc optimizing it out? - Are they not allowed to do so?










share|improve this question









New contributor




Julius is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
















  • 10




    I would be really surprised it a compiler was allowed to remove calls to external functions. What if you link with your own library that implements malloc?
    – Gerhardh
    yesterday






  • 8




    @Gerhardh malloc is not an external function, it's a part of the standard library. Compilers are allowed to inline it or otherwise implement it however they wish.
    – n.m.
    yesterday






  • 8




    @Lundin: It is not true that a compiler is not allowed to optimize out a function call if the function contains any side effects. A compiler is not allowed to optimize away observable behavior. If a side effect (and its consequences) is not observable, it may be removed.
    – Eric Postpischil
    yesterday








  • 3




    @Lundin It would make sense, but, why are two consecutive calls to malloc/free optimized out (godbolt.org/z/gBVXcp)? That wouldn't be allowed if it had a side effect, would it?
    – Julius
    23 hours ago








  • 11




    @Lundin: An unobservable side effect is not needed.
    – Eric Postpischil
    23 hours ago













up vote
26
down vote

favorite
8









up vote
26
down vote

favorite
8






8





I came across a situation where it would be useful to have unnecessary calls to realloc being optimized out. However, it seems like neither clang nor gcc do such a thing (godbolt). - Although I see optimizations being made with multiple calls to malloc.



The example:



void *myfunc() {
void *data;
data = malloc(100);
data = realloc(data, 200);
return data;
}


I expected it to be optimized to something like the following:



void *myfunc() {
return malloc(200);
}


Why is neither clang nor gcc optimizing it out? - Are they not allowed to do so?










share|improve this question









New contributor




Julius is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











I came across a situation where it would be useful to have unnecessary calls to realloc being optimized out. However, it seems like neither clang nor gcc do such a thing (godbolt). - Although I see optimizations being made with multiple calls to malloc.



The example:



void *myfunc() {
void *data;
data = malloc(100);
data = realloc(data, 200);
return data;
}


I expected it to be optimized to something like the following:



void *myfunc() {
return malloc(200);
}


Why is neither clang nor gcc optimizing it out? - Are they not allowed to do so?







c gcc clang language-lawyer compiler-optimization






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edited yesterday









Florian Weimer

14.1k2943




14.1k2943






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asked yesterday









Julius

13124




13124




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  • 10




    I would be really surprised it a compiler was allowed to remove calls to external functions. What if you link with your own library that implements malloc?
    – Gerhardh
    yesterday






  • 8




    @Gerhardh malloc is not an external function, it's a part of the standard library. Compilers are allowed to inline it or otherwise implement it however they wish.
    – n.m.
    yesterday






  • 8




    @Lundin: It is not true that a compiler is not allowed to optimize out a function call if the function contains any side effects. A compiler is not allowed to optimize away observable behavior. If a side effect (and its consequences) is not observable, it may be removed.
    – Eric Postpischil
    yesterday








  • 3




    @Lundin It would make sense, but, why are two consecutive calls to malloc/free optimized out (godbolt.org/z/gBVXcp)? That wouldn't be allowed if it had a side effect, would it?
    – Julius
    23 hours ago








  • 11




    @Lundin: An unobservable side effect is not needed.
    – Eric Postpischil
    23 hours ago














  • 10




    I would be really surprised it a compiler was allowed to remove calls to external functions. What if you link with your own library that implements malloc?
    – Gerhardh
    yesterday






  • 8




    @Gerhardh malloc is not an external function, it's a part of the standard library. Compilers are allowed to inline it or otherwise implement it however they wish.
    – n.m.
    yesterday






  • 8




    @Lundin: It is not true that a compiler is not allowed to optimize out a function call if the function contains any side effects. A compiler is not allowed to optimize away observable behavior. If a side effect (and its consequences) is not observable, it may be removed.
    – Eric Postpischil
    yesterday








  • 3




    @Lundin It would make sense, but, why are two consecutive calls to malloc/free optimized out (godbolt.org/z/gBVXcp)? That wouldn't be allowed if it had a side effect, would it?
    – Julius
    23 hours ago








  • 11




    @Lundin: An unobservable side effect is not needed.
    – Eric Postpischil
    23 hours ago








10




10




I would be really surprised it a compiler was allowed to remove calls to external functions. What if you link with your own library that implements malloc?
– Gerhardh
yesterday




I would be really surprised it a compiler was allowed to remove calls to external functions. What if you link with your own library that implements malloc?
– Gerhardh
yesterday




8




8




@Gerhardh malloc is not an external function, it's a part of the standard library. Compilers are allowed to inline it or otherwise implement it however they wish.
– n.m.
yesterday




@Gerhardh malloc is not an external function, it's a part of the standard library. Compilers are allowed to inline it or otherwise implement it however they wish.
– n.m.
yesterday




8




8




@Lundin: It is not true that a compiler is not allowed to optimize out a function call if the function contains any side effects. A compiler is not allowed to optimize away observable behavior. If a side effect (and its consequences) is not observable, it may be removed.
– Eric Postpischil
yesterday






@Lundin: It is not true that a compiler is not allowed to optimize out a function call if the function contains any side effects. A compiler is not allowed to optimize away observable behavior. If a side effect (and its consequences) is not observable, it may be removed.
– Eric Postpischil
yesterday






3




3




@Lundin It would make sense, but, why are two consecutive calls to malloc/free optimized out (godbolt.org/z/gBVXcp)? That wouldn't be allowed if it had a side effect, would it?
– Julius
23 hours ago






@Lundin It would make sense, but, why are two consecutive calls to malloc/free optimized out (godbolt.org/z/gBVXcp)? That wouldn't be allowed if it had a side effect, would it?
– Julius
23 hours ago






11




11




@Lundin: An unobservable side effect is not needed.
– Eric Postpischil
23 hours ago




@Lundin: An unobservable side effect is not needed.
– Eric Postpischil
23 hours ago












5 Answers
5






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
16
down vote














Are they not allowed to do so?




Maybe, but optimization not done in this case may be due to corner functional differences.





If 150 bytes of allocatable memory remain,
data = malloc(100); data = realloc(data, 200); returns NULL with 100 bytes consumed (and leaked) and 50 remain.



data = malloc(200); returns NULL with 0 bytes consumed (none leaked) and 150 remain.



Different functionality in this narrow case may prevent optimization.






Are compilers allowed to optimize-out realloc?




Perhaps - I would expect it is allowed. Yet it may not be worth the effect to enhance the compiler to determine when it can.



Successful malloc(n); ... realloc(p, 2*n) differs from malloc(2*n); when ... may have set some of the memory.



It might be beyond that compiler's design to insure ..., even if empty code, did not set any memory.






share|improve this answer



















  • 2




    I was thinking of that as well. However, this example shows that a realloc between prevents the malloc/free from being optimized out. If you remove it, the compiler will optimize-out the malloc and free. - and as far as I can see there will be no difference in the result?
    – Julius
    23 hours ago








  • 2




    @Julius Per this code , I see no reason disbarring optimization. Yet consider if both codes started with char *data = malloc(100); if (data == NULL) { return NULL; } *data = 1, the functions are different. With realloc() copying the first 100 bytes, the compiler may not see that copying uninitialized was not important in your code. BTW: 2nd compiler is C++ not C. Suggest comparing C to C.
    – chux
    19 hours ago








  • 1




    @Julius IOWs, successful malloc(n); ... realloc(p, 2*n) differs from malloc(2*n); when ... may have set some of the memory. It might be beyond that compiler's design to insure ... code did not set any memory.
    – chux
    19 hours ago






  • 2




    @chux That's an interesting thought. I could imagine it to be quite difficult to prove that there were no changes to the specific memory region in some cases - although it is most likely simple in other cases.
    – Julius
    18 hours ago






  • 2




    How does malloc(n); ... realloc(p, 2*n) differ from malloc(2*n); ...?
    – Andrew Svietlichnyy
    16 hours ago


















up vote
6
down vote













A compiler which bundles its own self-contained versions of malloc/calloc/free/realloc could legitimately perform the indicated optimization if the authors thought doing so was worth the effort. A compiler that chains to externally-supplied functions could still perform such optimizations if it documented that it did not regard the precise sequence of calls to such functions as an observable side-effect, but such treatment could be a bit more tenuous.



If no storage is allocated or deallocated between the malloc() and realloc(), the size of the realloc() is known when the malloc() is performed, and the realloc() size is larger than the malloc() size, then it may make sense to consolidate the malloc() and realloc() operations into a single larger allocation. If the state of memory could change in the interim, however, then such an optimization might cause the failure of operations that should have succeeded. For example, given the sequence:



void *p1 = malloc(2000000000);
void *p2 = malloc(2);
free(p1);
p2 = realloc(p2, 2000000000);


a system might not have 2000000000 bytes available for p2 until after p1 is freed. If it were to change the code to:



void *p1 = malloc(2000000000);
void *p2 = malloc(2000000000);
free(p1);


that would result in the allocation of p2 failing. Because the Standard never guarantees that allocation requests will succeed, such behavior would not be non-conforming. On the other hand, the following would also be a "conforming" implementation:



void *malloc(size_t size) { return 0; }
void *calloc(size_t size, size_t count) { return 0; }
void free(void *p) { }
void *realloc(void *p, size_t size) { return 0; }


Such an implementation might arguably be regarded as more "efficient" than most others, but one would have to be rather obtuse to regard it as being very useful except, perhaps, in rare situations where the above functions are are called on code paths that are never executed.



I think the Standard would clearly allow the optimization, at least in cases that are as simple as those in the original question. Even in cases where it might cause operations to fail that could otherwise have succeeded, the Standard would still allow it. Most likely, the reason that many compilers don't perform the optimization is that the authors didn't think the benefits would be sufficient to justify the effort required to identify cases where it would be safe and useful.






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  • Standards wise, no. C99 and C11 explicitly state the old object is deallocated and a new object is returned. Even with a private allocator the compiler cannot predict at compile time the pointer to a new allocation.
    – Greg A. Woods
    15 hours ago








  • 1




    @GregA.Woods: Under the as-if rule, a compiler would be allowed to consolidate the operations if the resulting behavior could have resulted from doing the operations separately. By what standard-defined means could a program observe whether realloc actually did anything other than yield a pointer to an allocation that might have already been as big as requested?
    – supercat
    15 hours ago






  • 1




    I suppose if the compiler's own allocator was known to always initially allocate more, say ten times as much, space as is required, and if the compiler could predict at compile time that the the allocated object's desired size was X, and also predict that the new size passed to realloc() was less than 10X then it could assume the object would not change location. However I don't know if the optimization would still be allowed by the current standard. Perhaps.
    – Greg A. Woods
    14 hours ago


















up vote
3
down vote













The compiler is allowed to optimize out multiple calls to functions which are considered pure functions, i.e. functions that do not have any side-effects.



So the question is whether realloc() is a pure function or not.



The C11 Standard Committee Draft N1570 states this about the realloc function:




7.22.3.5 The realloc function

...

2. The realloc function deallocates the old object pointed to by ptr and returns a pointer to a new object that has the size specified by size. The contents of the new object shall be the same as that of the old object prior to deallocation, up to the lesser of the new and old sizes. Any bytes in the new object beyond the size of the old object have indeterminate values.



Returns

4. The realloc function returns a pointer to the new object (which may have the same value as a pointer to the old object), or a null pointer if the new object could not be allocated.




Notice that the compiler cannot predict at compile time the value of the pointer that will be returned on each call.



This means that realloc() cannot be considered a pure function and multiple calls to it cannot be optimized out by the compiler.






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  • 4




    Freeing a block of memory has no observable side effects (a conforming compiler can implement free as a no-op and a conforming program won't be able to tell).
    – n.m.
    yesterday








  • 2




    @AndrewHenle but why are two consecutive calls to malloc/free optimized out (godbolt.org/z/gBVXcp)? That wouldn't be allowed if it had a side effect, would it?
    – Julius
    yesterday








  • 9




    @AndrewHenle: The behavior of calling free on a previously freed block is undefined. Therefore, whatever the observable behavior occurs upon doing so cannot be used to deduce whether or not a previously free was or was not actually implemented—any behavior could be exhibited for any reason.
    – Eric Postpischil
    yesterday








  • 13




    The compiler is allowed to optimize more than calls to pure functions. It is allowed to optimize anything that does not change the defined observable behavior. The behavior of malloc and realloc is specified by the C standard, so the compiler may optimize them in ways that result in the same observable behavior in accordance with their specifications.
    – Eric Postpischil
    yesterday








  • 3




    @AndrewHenle: It is not observable in this code since the two pointers are never compared. The two values do not even exist at the same time.
    – Eric Postpischil
    yesterday


















up vote
0
down vote













Yes, I think this is allowed by N3664






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  • That appears to be primarily related to C++ (particularly, the new operator).
    – usr
    yesterday






  • 1




    @usr clang claims to have implemented N3664, however, since C++ doesn't have realloc (in terms of new/delete) it might explain why malloc/free calls are optimized and realloc isn't?
    – Julius
    yesterday












  • @Julius C++ does have realloc. If it was a proposed change to relevant part of C standard, it'd be relevant.
    – usr
    yesterday






  • 3




    @usr Ah yes, you are right! I was thinking about an equivalent C++ operator such as new/delete. Stroustroup suggests to do reallocations through a container though.
    – Julius
    yesterday






  • 1




    @usr That's just the legacy-wrapper for the realloc() C function, and is not interoperable with new/delete. Even when combined with std::malloc() and std::free(), std::realloc() won't call any constructors/destructors the way std::vector<> does, so it's pretty much worthless for modern C++ programmers...
    – cmaster
    19 hours ago




















up vote
0
down vote













But you're not checking the return value of the first malloc() which you're then using in the second realloc(). It could just as well be NULL.



How could the compiler optimize the two calls into a single one without making unwarranted assumptions about the return value of the first?



Then there is another possible scenario. FreeBSD used to have a realloc() which was basically malloc + memcpy + free the old pointer.



Suppose that there are only 230 bytes left of free memory. In that implementation, ptr = malloc(100) followed by realloc(ptr, 200) will fail, but a single malloc(200) will succeed.






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  • You are right about the checking, but I have submitted at least one example in the comments which include checking the return value - it doesn't seem to make a difference. Actually, the compiler does make such assumptions sometimes which I could demonstrate.
    – Julius
    4 hours ago













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5 Answers
5






active

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5 Answers
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active

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active

oldest

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active

oldest

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up vote
16
down vote














Are they not allowed to do so?




Maybe, but optimization not done in this case may be due to corner functional differences.





If 150 bytes of allocatable memory remain,
data = malloc(100); data = realloc(data, 200); returns NULL with 100 bytes consumed (and leaked) and 50 remain.



data = malloc(200); returns NULL with 0 bytes consumed (none leaked) and 150 remain.



Different functionality in this narrow case may prevent optimization.






Are compilers allowed to optimize-out realloc?




Perhaps - I would expect it is allowed. Yet it may not be worth the effect to enhance the compiler to determine when it can.



Successful malloc(n); ... realloc(p, 2*n) differs from malloc(2*n); when ... may have set some of the memory.



It might be beyond that compiler's design to insure ..., even if empty code, did not set any memory.






share|improve this answer



















  • 2




    I was thinking of that as well. However, this example shows that a realloc between prevents the malloc/free from being optimized out. If you remove it, the compiler will optimize-out the malloc and free. - and as far as I can see there will be no difference in the result?
    – Julius
    23 hours ago








  • 2




    @Julius Per this code , I see no reason disbarring optimization. Yet consider if both codes started with char *data = malloc(100); if (data == NULL) { return NULL; } *data = 1, the functions are different. With realloc() copying the first 100 bytes, the compiler may not see that copying uninitialized was not important in your code. BTW: 2nd compiler is C++ not C. Suggest comparing C to C.
    – chux
    19 hours ago








  • 1




    @Julius IOWs, successful malloc(n); ... realloc(p, 2*n) differs from malloc(2*n); when ... may have set some of the memory. It might be beyond that compiler's design to insure ... code did not set any memory.
    – chux
    19 hours ago






  • 2




    @chux That's an interesting thought. I could imagine it to be quite difficult to prove that there were no changes to the specific memory region in some cases - although it is most likely simple in other cases.
    – Julius
    18 hours ago






  • 2




    How does malloc(n); ... realloc(p, 2*n) differ from malloc(2*n); ...?
    – Andrew Svietlichnyy
    16 hours ago















up vote
16
down vote














Are they not allowed to do so?




Maybe, but optimization not done in this case may be due to corner functional differences.





If 150 bytes of allocatable memory remain,
data = malloc(100); data = realloc(data, 200); returns NULL with 100 bytes consumed (and leaked) and 50 remain.



data = malloc(200); returns NULL with 0 bytes consumed (none leaked) and 150 remain.



Different functionality in this narrow case may prevent optimization.






Are compilers allowed to optimize-out realloc?




Perhaps - I would expect it is allowed. Yet it may not be worth the effect to enhance the compiler to determine when it can.



Successful malloc(n); ... realloc(p, 2*n) differs from malloc(2*n); when ... may have set some of the memory.



It might be beyond that compiler's design to insure ..., even if empty code, did not set any memory.






share|improve this answer



















  • 2




    I was thinking of that as well. However, this example shows that a realloc between prevents the malloc/free from being optimized out. If you remove it, the compiler will optimize-out the malloc and free. - and as far as I can see there will be no difference in the result?
    – Julius
    23 hours ago








  • 2




    @Julius Per this code , I see no reason disbarring optimization. Yet consider if both codes started with char *data = malloc(100); if (data == NULL) { return NULL; } *data = 1, the functions are different. With realloc() copying the first 100 bytes, the compiler may not see that copying uninitialized was not important in your code. BTW: 2nd compiler is C++ not C. Suggest comparing C to C.
    – chux
    19 hours ago








  • 1




    @Julius IOWs, successful malloc(n); ... realloc(p, 2*n) differs from malloc(2*n); when ... may have set some of the memory. It might be beyond that compiler's design to insure ... code did not set any memory.
    – chux
    19 hours ago






  • 2




    @chux That's an interesting thought. I could imagine it to be quite difficult to prove that there were no changes to the specific memory region in some cases - although it is most likely simple in other cases.
    – Julius
    18 hours ago






  • 2




    How does malloc(n); ... realloc(p, 2*n) differ from malloc(2*n); ...?
    – Andrew Svietlichnyy
    16 hours ago













up vote
16
down vote










up vote
16
down vote










Are they not allowed to do so?




Maybe, but optimization not done in this case may be due to corner functional differences.





If 150 bytes of allocatable memory remain,
data = malloc(100); data = realloc(data, 200); returns NULL with 100 bytes consumed (and leaked) and 50 remain.



data = malloc(200); returns NULL with 0 bytes consumed (none leaked) and 150 remain.



Different functionality in this narrow case may prevent optimization.






Are compilers allowed to optimize-out realloc?




Perhaps - I would expect it is allowed. Yet it may not be worth the effect to enhance the compiler to determine when it can.



Successful malloc(n); ... realloc(p, 2*n) differs from malloc(2*n); when ... may have set some of the memory.



It might be beyond that compiler's design to insure ..., even if empty code, did not set any memory.






share|improve this answer















Are they not allowed to do so?




Maybe, but optimization not done in this case may be due to corner functional differences.





If 150 bytes of allocatable memory remain,
data = malloc(100); data = realloc(data, 200); returns NULL with 100 bytes consumed (and leaked) and 50 remain.



data = malloc(200); returns NULL with 0 bytes consumed (none leaked) and 150 remain.



Different functionality in this narrow case may prevent optimization.






Are compilers allowed to optimize-out realloc?




Perhaps - I would expect it is allowed. Yet it may not be worth the effect to enhance the compiler to determine when it can.



Successful malloc(n); ... realloc(p, 2*n) differs from malloc(2*n); when ... may have set some of the memory.



It might be beyond that compiler's design to insure ..., even if empty code, did not set any memory.







share|improve this answer














share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer








edited 17 hours ago

























answered 23 hours ago









chux

78.3k869143




78.3k869143








  • 2




    I was thinking of that as well. However, this example shows that a realloc between prevents the malloc/free from being optimized out. If you remove it, the compiler will optimize-out the malloc and free. - and as far as I can see there will be no difference in the result?
    – Julius
    23 hours ago








  • 2




    @Julius Per this code , I see no reason disbarring optimization. Yet consider if both codes started with char *data = malloc(100); if (data == NULL) { return NULL; } *data = 1, the functions are different. With realloc() copying the first 100 bytes, the compiler may not see that copying uninitialized was not important in your code. BTW: 2nd compiler is C++ not C. Suggest comparing C to C.
    – chux
    19 hours ago








  • 1




    @Julius IOWs, successful malloc(n); ... realloc(p, 2*n) differs from malloc(2*n); when ... may have set some of the memory. It might be beyond that compiler's design to insure ... code did not set any memory.
    – chux
    19 hours ago






  • 2




    @chux That's an interesting thought. I could imagine it to be quite difficult to prove that there were no changes to the specific memory region in some cases - although it is most likely simple in other cases.
    – Julius
    18 hours ago






  • 2




    How does malloc(n); ... realloc(p, 2*n) differ from malloc(2*n); ...?
    – Andrew Svietlichnyy
    16 hours ago














  • 2




    I was thinking of that as well. However, this example shows that a realloc between prevents the malloc/free from being optimized out. If you remove it, the compiler will optimize-out the malloc and free. - and as far as I can see there will be no difference in the result?
    – Julius
    23 hours ago








  • 2




    @Julius Per this code , I see no reason disbarring optimization. Yet consider if both codes started with char *data = malloc(100); if (data == NULL) { return NULL; } *data = 1, the functions are different. With realloc() copying the first 100 bytes, the compiler may not see that copying uninitialized was not important in your code. BTW: 2nd compiler is C++ not C. Suggest comparing C to C.
    – chux
    19 hours ago








  • 1




    @Julius IOWs, successful malloc(n); ... realloc(p, 2*n) differs from malloc(2*n); when ... may have set some of the memory. It might be beyond that compiler's design to insure ... code did not set any memory.
    – chux
    19 hours ago






  • 2




    @chux That's an interesting thought. I could imagine it to be quite difficult to prove that there were no changes to the specific memory region in some cases - although it is most likely simple in other cases.
    – Julius
    18 hours ago






  • 2




    How does malloc(n); ... realloc(p, 2*n) differ from malloc(2*n); ...?
    – Andrew Svietlichnyy
    16 hours ago








2




2




I was thinking of that as well. However, this example shows that a realloc between prevents the malloc/free from being optimized out. If you remove it, the compiler will optimize-out the malloc and free. - and as far as I can see there will be no difference in the result?
– Julius
23 hours ago






I was thinking of that as well. However, this example shows that a realloc between prevents the malloc/free from being optimized out. If you remove it, the compiler will optimize-out the malloc and free. - and as far as I can see there will be no difference in the result?
– Julius
23 hours ago






2




2




@Julius Per this code , I see no reason disbarring optimization. Yet consider if both codes started with char *data = malloc(100); if (data == NULL) { return NULL; } *data = 1, the functions are different. With realloc() copying the first 100 bytes, the compiler may not see that copying uninitialized was not important in your code. BTW: 2nd compiler is C++ not C. Suggest comparing C to C.
– chux
19 hours ago






@Julius Per this code , I see no reason disbarring optimization. Yet consider if both codes started with char *data = malloc(100); if (data == NULL) { return NULL; } *data = 1, the functions are different. With realloc() copying the first 100 bytes, the compiler may not see that copying uninitialized was not important in your code. BTW: 2nd compiler is C++ not C. Suggest comparing C to C.
– chux
19 hours ago






1




1




@Julius IOWs, successful malloc(n); ... realloc(p, 2*n) differs from malloc(2*n); when ... may have set some of the memory. It might be beyond that compiler's design to insure ... code did not set any memory.
– chux
19 hours ago




@Julius IOWs, successful malloc(n); ... realloc(p, 2*n) differs from malloc(2*n); when ... may have set some of the memory. It might be beyond that compiler's design to insure ... code did not set any memory.
– chux
19 hours ago




2




2




@chux That's an interesting thought. I could imagine it to be quite difficult to prove that there were no changes to the specific memory region in some cases - although it is most likely simple in other cases.
– Julius
18 hours ago




@chux That's an interesting thought. I could imagine it to be quite difficult to prove that there were no changes to the specific memory region in some cases - although it is most likely simple in other cases.
– Julius
18 hours ago




2




2




How does malloc(n); ... realloc(p, 2*n) differ from malloc(2*n); ...?
– Andrew Svietlichnyy
16 hours ago




How does malloc(n); ... realloc(p, 2*n) differ from malloc(2*n); ...?
– Andrew Svietlichnyy
16 hours ago












up vote
6
down vote













A compiler which bundles its own self-contained versions of malloc/calloc/free/realloc could legitimately perform the indicated optimization if the authors thought doing so was worth the effort. A compiler that chains to externally-supplied functions could still perform such optimizations if it documented that it did not regard the precise sequence of calls to such functions as an observable side-effect, but such treatment could be a bit more tenuous.



If no storage is allocated or deallocated between the malloc() and realloc(), the size of the realloc() is known when the malloc() is performed, and the realloc() size is larger than the malloc() size, then it may make sense to consolidate the malloc() and realloc() operations into a single larger allocation. If the state of memory could change in the interim, however, then such an optimization might cause the failure of operations that should have succeeded. For example, given the sequence:



void *p1 = malloc(2000000000);
void *p2 = malloc(2);
free(p1);
p2 = realloc(p2, 2000000000);


a system might not have 2000000000 bytes available for p2 until after p1 is freed. If it were to change the code to:



void *p1 = malloc(2000000000);
void *p2 = malloc(2000000000);
free(p1);


that would result in the allocation of p2 failing. Because the Standard never guarantees that allocation requests will succeed, such behavior would not be non-conforming. On the other hand, the following would also be a "conforming" implementation:



void *malloc(size_t size) { return 0; }
void *calloc(size_t size, size_t count) { return 0; }
void free(void *p) { }
void *realloc(void *p, size_t size) { return 0; }


Such an implementation might arguably be regarded as more "efficient" than most others, but one would have to be rather obtuse to regard it as being very useful except, perhaps, in rare situations where the above functions are are called on code paths that are never executed.



I think the Standard would clearly allow the optimization, at least in cases that are as simple as those in the original question. Even in cases where it might cause operations to fail that could otherwise have succeeded, the Standard would still allow it. Most likely, the reason that many compilers don't perform the optimization is that the authors didn't think the benefits would be sufficient to justify the effort required to identify cases where it would be safe and useful.






share|improve this answer





















  • Standards wise, no. C99 and C11 explicitly state the old object is deallocated and a new object is returned. Even with a private allocator the compiler cannot predict at compile time the pointer to a new allocation.
    – Greg A. Woods
    15 hours ago








  • 1




    @GregA.Woods: Under the as-if rule, a compiler would be allowed to consolidate the operations if the resulting behavior could have resulted from doing the operations separately. By what standard-defined means could a program observe whether realloc actually did anything other than yield a pointer to an allocation that might have already been as big as requested?
    – supercat
    15 hours ago






  • 1




    I suppose if the compiler's own allocator was known to always initially allocate more, say ten times as much, space as is required, and if the compiler could predict at compile time that the the allocated object's desired size was X, and also predict that the new size passed to realloc() was less than 10X then it could assume the object would not change location. However I don't know if the optimization would still be allowed by the current standard. Perhaps.
    – Greg A. Woods
    14 hours ago















up vote
6
down vote













A compiler which bundles its own self-contained versions of malloc/calloc/free/realloc could legitimately perform the indicated optimization if the authors thought doing so was worth the effort. A compiler that chains to externally-supplied functions could still perform such optimizations if it documented that it did not regard the precise sequence of calls to such functions as an observable side-effect, but such treatment could be a bit more tenuous.



If no storage is allocated or deallocated between the malloc() and realloc(), the size of the realloc() is known when the malloc() is performed, and the realloc() size is larger than the malloc() size, then it may make sense to consolidate the malloc() and realloc() operations into a single larger allocation. If the state of memory could change in the interim, however, then such an optimization might cause the failure of operations that should have succeeded. For example, given the sequence:



void *p1 = malloc(2000000000);
void *p2 = malloc(2);
free(p1);
p2 = realloc(p2, 2000000000);


a system might not have 2000000000 bytes available for p2 until after p1 is freed. If it were to change the code to:



void *p1 = malloc(2000000000);
void *p2 = malloc(2000000000);
free(p1);


that would result in the allocation of p2 failing. Because the Standard never guarantees that allocation requests will succeed, such behavior would not be non-conforming. On the other hand, the following would also be a "conforming" implementation:



void *malloc(size_t size) { return 0; }
void *calloc(size_t size, size_t count) { return 0; }
void free(void *p) { }
void *realloc(void *p, size_t size) { return 0; }


Such an implementation might arguably be regarded as more "efficient" than most others, but one would have to be rather obtuse to regard it as being very useful except, perhaps, in rare situations where the above functions are are called on code paths that are never executed.



I think the Standard would clearly allow the optimization, at least in cases that are as simple as those in the original question. Even in cases where it might cause operations to fail that could otherwise have succeeded, the Standard would still allow it. Most likely, the reason that many compilers don't perform the optimization is that the authors didn't think the benefits would be sufficient to justify the effort required to identify cases where it would be safe and useful.






share|improve this answer





















  • Standards wise, no. C99 and C11 explicitly state the old object is deallocated and a new object is returned. Even with a private allocator the compiler cannot predict at compile time the pointer to a new allocation.
    – Greg A. Woods
    15 hours ago








  • 1




    @GregA.Woods: Under the as-if rule, a compiler would be allowed to consolidate the operations if the resulting behavior could have resulted from doing the operations separately. By what standard-defined means could a program observe whether realloc actually did anything other than yield a pointer to an allocation that might have already been as big as requested?
    – supercat
    15 hours ago






  • 1




    I suppose if the compiler's own allocator was known to always initially allocate more, say ten times as much, space as is required, and if the compiler could predict at compile time that the the allocated object's desired size was X, and also predict that the new size passed to realloc() was less than 10X then it could assume the object would not change location. However I don't know if the optimization would still be allowed by the current standard. Perhaps.
    – Greg A. Woods
    14 hours ago













up vote
6
down vote










up vote
6
down vote









A compiler which bundles its own self-contained versions of malloc/calloc/free/realloc could legitimately perform the indicated optimization if the authors thought doing so was worth the effort. A compiler that chains to externally-supplied functions could still perform such optimizations if it documented that it did not regard the precise sequence of calls to such functions as an observable side-effect, but such treatment could be a bit more tenuous.



If no storage is allocated or deallocated between the malloc() and realloc(), the size of the realloc() is known when the malloc() is performed, and the realloc() size is larger than the malloc() size, then it may make sense to consolidate the malloc() and realloc() operations into a single larger allocation. If the state of memory could change in the interim, however, then such an optimization might cause the failure of operations that should have succeeded. For example, given the sequence:



void *p1 = malloc(2000000000);
void *p2 = malloc(2);
free(p1);
p2 = realloc(p2, 2000000000);


a system might not have 2000000000 bytes available for p2 until after p1 is freed. If it were to change the code to:



void *p1 = malloc(2000000000);
void *p2 = malloc(2000000000);
free(p1);


that would result in the allocation of p2 failing. Because the Standard never guarantees that allocation requests will succeed, such behavior would not be non-conforming. On the other hand, the following would also be a "conforming" implementation:



void *malloc(size_t size) { return 0; }
void *calloc(size_t size, size_t count) { return 0; }
void free(void *p) { }
void *realloc(void *p, size_t size) { return 0; }


Such an implementation might arguably be regarded as more "efficient" than most others, but one would have to be rather obtuse to regard it as being very useful except, perhaps, in rare situations where the above functions are are called on code paths that are never executed.



I think the Standard would clearly allow the optimization, at least in cases that are as simple as those in the original question. Even in cases where it might cause operations to fail that could otherwise have succeeded, the Standard would still allow it. Most likely, the reason that many compilers don't perform the optimization is that the authors didn't think the benefits would be sufficient to justify the effort required to identify cases where it would be safe and useful.






share|improve this answer












A compiler which bundles its own self-contained versions of malloc/calloc/free/realloc could legitimately perform the indicated optimization if the authors thought doing so was worth the effort. A compiler that chains to externally-supplied functions could still perform such optimizations if it documented that it did not regard the precise sequence of calls to such functions as an observable side-effect, but such treatment could be a bit more tenuous.



If no storage is allocated or deallocated between the malloc() and realloc(), the size of the realloc() is known when the malloc() is performed, and the realloc() size is larger than the malloc() size, then it may make sense to consolidate the malloc() and realloc() operations into a single larger allocation. If the state of memory could change in the interim, however, then such an optimization might cause the failure of operations that should have succeeded. For example, given the sequence:



void *p1 = malloc(2000000000);
void *p2 = malloc(2);
free(p1);
p2 = realloc(p2, 2000000000);


a system might not have 2000000000 bytes available for p2 until after p1 is freed. If it were to change the code to:



void *p1 = malloc(2000000000);
void *p2 = malloc(2000000000);
free(p1);


that would result in the allocation of p2 failing. Because the Standard never guarantees that allocation requests will succeed, such behavior would not be non-conforming. On the other hand, the following would also be a "conforming" implementation:



void *malloc(size_t size) { return 0; }
void *calloc(size_t size, size_t count) { return 0; }
void free(void *p) { }
void *realloc(void *p, size_t size) { return 0; }


Such an implementation might arguably be regarded as more "efficient" than most others, but one would have to be rather obtuse to regard it as being very useful except, perhaps, in rare situations where the above functions are are called on code paths that are never executed.



I think the Standard would clearly allow the optimization, at least in cases that are as simple as those in the original question. Even in cases where it might cause operations to fail that could otherwise have succeeded, the Standard would still allow it. Most likely, the reason that many compilers don't perform the optimization is that the authors didn't think the benefits would be sufficient to justify the effort required to identify cases where it would be safe and useful.







share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered 19 hours ago









supercat

55.6k2115146




55.6k2115146












  • Standards wise, no. C99 and C11 explicitly state the old object is deallocated and a new object is returned. Even with a private allocator the compiler cannot predict at compile time the pointer to a new allocation.
    – Greg A. Woods
    15 hours ago








  • 1




    @GregA.Woods: Under the as-if rule, a compiler would be allowed to consolidate the operations if the resulting behavior could have resulted from doing the operations separately. By what standard-defined means could a program observe whether realloc actually did anything other than yield a pointer to an allocation that might have already been as big as requested?
    – supercat
    15 hours ago






  • 1




    I suppose if the compiler's own allocator was known to always initially allocate more, say ten times as much, space as is required, and if the compiler could predict at compile time that the the allocated object's desired size was X, and also predict that the new size passed to realloc() was less than 10X then it could assume the object would not change location. However I don't know if the optimization would still be allowed by the current standard. Perhaps.
    – Greg A. Woods
    14 hours ago


















  • Standards wise, no. C99 and C11 explicitly state the old object is deallocated and a new object is returned. Even with a private allocator the compiler cannot predict at compile time the pointer to a new allocation.
    – Greg A. Woods
    15 hours ago








  • 1




    @GregA.Woods: Under the as-if rule, a compiler would be allowed to consolidate the operations if the resulting behavior could have resulted from doing the operations separately. By what standard-defined means could a program observe whether realloc actually did anything other than yield a pointer to an allocation that might have already been as big as requested?
    – supercat
    15 hours ago






  • 1




    I suppose if the compiler's own allocator was known to always initially allocate more, say ten times as much, space as is required, and if the compiler could predict at compile time that the the allocated object's desired size was X, and also predict that the new size passed to realloc() was less than 10X then it could assume the object would not change location. However I don't know if the optimization would still be allowed by the current standard. Perhaps.
    – Greg A. Woods
    14 hours ago
















Standards wise, no. C99 and C11 explicitly state the old object is deallocated and a new object is returned. Even with a private allocator the compiler cannot predict at compile time the pointer to a new allocation.
– Greg A. Woods
15 hours ago






Standards wise, no. C99 and C11 explicitly state the old object is deallocated and a new object is returned. Even with a private allocator the compiler cannot predict at compile time the pointer to a new allocation.
– Greg A. Woods
15 hours ago






1




1




@GregA.Woods: Under the as-if rule, a compiler would be allowed to consolidate the operations if the resulting behavior could have resulted from doing the operations separately. By what standard-defined means could a program observe whether realloc actually did anything other than yield a pointer to an allocation that might have already been as big as requested?
– supercat
15 hours ago




@GregA.Woods: Under the as-if rule, a compiler would be allowed to consolidate the operations if the resulting behavior could have resulted from doing the operations separately. By what standard-defined means could a program observe whether realloc actually did anything other than yield a pointer to an allocation that might have already been as big as requested?
– supercat
15 hours ago




1




1




I suppose if the compiler's own allocator was known to always initially allocate more, say ten times as much, space as is required, and if the compiler could predict at compile time that the the allocated object's desired size was X, and also predict that the new size passed to realloc() was less than 10X then it could assume the object would not change location. However I don't know if the optimization would still be allowed by the current standard. Perhaps.
– Greg A. Woods
14 hours ago




I suppose if the compiler's own allocator was known to always initially allocate more, say ten times as much, space as is required, and if the compiler could predict at compile time that the the allocated object's desired size was X, and also predict that the new size passed to realloc() was less than 10X then it could assume the object would not change location. However I don't know if the optimization would still be allowed by the current standard. Perhaps.
– Greg A. Woods
14 hours ago










up vote
3
down vote













The compiler is allowed to optimize out multiple calls to functions which are considered pure functions, i.e. functions that do not have any side-effects.



So the question is whether realloc() is a pure function or not.



The C11 Standard Committee Draft N1570 states this about the realloc function:




7.22.3.5 The realloc function

...

2. The realloc function deallocates the old object pointed to by ptr and returns a pointer to a new object that has the size specified by size. The contents of the new object shall be the same as that of the old object prior to deallocation, up to the lesser of the new and old sizes. Any bytes in the new object beyond the size of the old object have indeterminate values.



Returns

4. The realloc function returns a pointer to the new object (which may have the same value as a pointer to the old object), or a null pointer if the new object could not be allocated.




Notice that the compiler cannot predict at compile time the value of the pointer that will be returned on each call.



This means that realloc() cannot be considered a pure function and multiple calls to it cannot be optimized out by the compiler.






share|improve this answer



















  • 4




    Freeing a block of memory has no observable side effects (a conforming compiler can implement free as a no-op and a conforming program won't be able to tell).
    – n.m.
    yesterday








  • 2




    @AndrewHenle but why are two consecutive calls to malloc/free optimized out (godbolt.org/z/gBVXcp)? That wouldn't be allowed if it had a side effect, would it?
    – Julius
    yesterday








  • 9




    @AndrewHenle: The behavior of calling free on a previously freed block is undefined. Therefore, whatever the observable behavior occurs upon doing so cannot be used to deduce whether or not a previously free was or was not actually implemented—any behavior could be exhibited for any reason.
    – Eric Postpischil
    yesterday








  • 13




    The compiler is allowed to optimize more than calls to pure functions. It is allowed to optimize anything that does not change the defined observable behavior. The behavior of malloc and realloc is specified by the C standard, so the compiler may optimize them in ways that result in the same observable behavior in accordance with their specifications.
    – Eric Postpischil
    yesterday








  • 3




    @AndrewHenle: It is not observable in this code since the two pointers are never compared. The two values do not even exist at the same time.
    – Eric Postpischil
    yesterday















up vote
3
down vote













The compiler is allowed to optimize out multiple calls to functions which are considered pure functions, i.e. functions that do not have any side-effects.



So the question is whether realloc() is a pure function or not.



The C11 Standard Committee Draft N1570 states this about the realloc function:




7.22.3.5 The realloc function

...

2. The realloc function deallocates the old object pointed to by ptr and returns a pointer to a new object that has the size specified by size. The contents of the new object shall be the same as that of the old object prior to deallocation, up to the lesser of the new and old sizes. Any bytes in the new object beyond the size of the old object have indeterminate values.



Returns

4. The realloc function returns a pointer to the new object (which may have the same value as a pointer to the old object), or a null pointer if the new object could not be allocated.




Notice that the compiler cannot predict at compile time the value of the pointer that will be returned on each call.



This means that realloc() cannot be considered a pure function and multiple calls to it cannot be optimized out by the compiler.






share|improve this answer



















  • 4




    Freeing a block of memory has no observable side effects (a conforming compiler can implement free as a no-op and a conforming program won't be able to tell).
    – n.m.
    yesterday








  • 2




    @AndrewHenle but why are two consecutive calls to malloc/free optimized out (godbolt.org/z/gBVXcp)? That wouldn't be allowed if it had a side effect, would it?
    – Julius
    yesterday








  • 9




    @AndrewHenle: The behavior of calling free on a previously freed block is undefined. Therefore, whatever the observable behavior occurs upon doing so cannot be used to deduce whether or not a previously free was or was not actually implemented—any behavior could be exhibited for any reason.
    – Eric Postpischil
    yesterday








  • 13




    The compiler is allowed to optimize more than calls to pure functions. It is allowed to optimize anything that does not change the defined observable behavior. The behavior of malloc and realloc is specified by the C standard, so the compiler may optimize them in ways that result in the same observable behavior in accordance with their specifications.
    – Eric Postpischil
    yesterday








  • 3




    @AndrewHenle: It is not observable in this code since the two pointers are never compared. The two values do not even exist at the same time.
    – Eric Postpischil
    yesterday













up vote
3
down vote










up vote
3
down vote









The compiler is allowed to optimize out multiple calls to functions which are considered pure functions, i.e. functions that do not have any side-effects.



So the question is whether realloc() is a pure function or not.



The C11 Standard Committee Draft N1570 states this about the realloc function:




7.22.3.5 The realloc function

...

2. The realloc function deallocates the old object pointed to by ptr and returns a pointer to a new object that has the size specified by size. The contents of the new object shall be the same as that of the old object prior to deallocation, up to the lesser of the new and old sizes. Any bytes in the new object beyond the size of the old object have indeterminate values.



Returns

4. The realloc function returns a pointer to the new object (which may have the same value as a pointer to the old object), or a null pointer if the new object could not be allocated.




Notice that the compiler cannot predict at compile time the value of the pointer that will be returned on each call.



This means that realloc() cannot be considered a pure function and multiple calls to it cannot be optimized out by the compiler.






share|improve this answer














The compiler is allowed to optimize out multiple calls to functions which are considered pure functions, i.e. functions that do not have any side-effects.



So the question is whether realloc() is a pure function or not.



The C11 Standard Committee Draft N1570 states this about the realloc function:




7.22.3.5 The realloc function

...

2. The realloc function deallocates the old object pointed to by ptr and returns a pointer to a new object that has the size specified by size. The contents of the new object shall be the same as that of the old object prior to deallocation, up to the lesser of the new and old sizes. Any bytes in the new object beyond the size of the old object have indeterminate values.



Returns

4. The realloc function returns a pointer to the new object (which may have the same value as a pointer to the old object), or a null pointer if the new object could not be allocated.




Notice that the compiler cannot predict at compile time the value of the pointer that will be returned on each call.



This means that realloc() cannot be considered a pure function and multiple calls to it cannot be optimized out by the compiler.







share|improve this answer














share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer








edited 7 hours ago

























answered yesterday









P.W

7,5902438




7,5902438








  • 4




    Freeing a block of memory has no observable side effects (a conforming compiler can implement free as a no-op and a conforming program won't be able to tell).
    – n.m.
    yesterday








  • 2




    @AndrewHenle but why are two consecutive calls to malloc/free optimized out (godbolt.org/z/gBVXcp)? That wouldn't be allowed if it had a side effect, would it?
    – Julius
    yesterday








  • 9




    @AndrewHenle: The behavior of calling free on a previously freed block is undefined. Therefore, whatever the observable behavior occurs upon doing so cannot be used to deduce whether or not a previously free was or was not actually implemented—any behavior could be exhibited for any reason.
    – Eric Postpischil
    yesterday








  • 13




    The compiler is allowed to optimize more than calls to pure functions. It is allowed to optimize anything that does not change the defined observable behavior. The behavior of malloc and realloc is specified by the C standard, so the compiler may optimize them in ways that result in the same observable behavior in accordance with their specifications.
    – Eric Postpischil
    yesterday








  • 3




    @AndrewHenle: It is not observable in this code since the two pointers are never compared. The two values do not even exist at the same time.
    – Eric Postpischil
    yesterday














  • 4




    Freeing a block of memory has no observable side effects (a conforming compiler can implement free as a no-op and a conforming program won't be able to tell).
    – n.m.
    yesterday








  • 2




    @AndrewHenle but why are two consecutive calls to malloc/free optimized out (godbolt.org/z/gBVXcp)? That wouldn't be allowed if it had a side effect, would it?
    – Julius
    yesterday








  • 9




    @AndrewHenle: The behavior of calling free on a previously freed block is undefined. Therefore, whatever the observable behavior occurs upon doing so cannot be used to deduce whether or not a previously free was or was not actually implemented—any behavior could be exhibited for any reason.
    – Eric Postpischil
    yesterday








  • 13




    The compiler is allowed to optimize more than calls to pure functions. It is allowed to optimize anything that does not change the defined observable behavior. The behavior of malloc and realloc is specified by the C standard, so the compiler may optimize them in ways that result in the same observable behavior in accordance with their specifications.
    – Eric Postpischil
    yesterday








  • 3




    @AndrewHenle: It is not observable in this code since the two pointers are never compared. The two values do not even exist at the same time.
    – Eric Postpischil
    yesterday








4




4




Freeing a block of memory has no observable side effects (a conforming compiler can implement free as a no-op and a conforming program won't be able to tell).
– n.m.
yesterday






Freeing a block of memory has no observable side effects (a conforming compiler can implement free as a no-op and a conforming program won't be able to tell).
– n.m.
yesterday






2




2




@AndrewHenle but why are two consecutive calls to malloc/free optimized out (godbolt.org/z/gBVXcp)? That wouldn't be allowed if it had a side effect, would it?
– Julius
yesterday






@AndrewHenle but why are two consecutive calls to malloc/free optimized out (godbolt.org/z/gBVXcp)? That wouldn't be allowed if it had a side effect, would it?
– Julius
yesterday






9




9




@AndrewHenle: The behavior of calling free on a previously freed block is undefined. Therefore, whatever the observable behavior occurs upon doing so cannot be used to deduce whether or not a previously free was or was not actually implemented—any behavior could be exhibited for any reason.
– Eric Postpischil
yesterday






@AndrewHenle: The behavior of calling free on a previously freed block is undefined. Therefore, whatever the observable behavior occurs upon doing so cannot be used to deduce whether or not a previously free was or was not actually implemented—any behavior could be exhibited for any reason.
– Eric Postpischil
yesterday






13




13




The compiler is allowed to optimize more than calls to pure functions. It is allowed to optimize anything that does not change the defined observable behavior. The behavior of malloc and realloc is specified by the C standard, so the compiler may optimize them in ways that result in the same observable behavior in accordance with their specifications.
– Eric Postpischil
yesterday






The compiler is allowed to optimize more than calls to pure functions. It is allowed to optimize anything that does not change the defined observable behavior. The behavior of malloc and realloc is specified by the C standard, so the compiler may optimize them in ways that result in the same observable behavior in accordance with their specifications.
– Eric Postpischil
yesterday






3




3




@AndrewHenle: It is not observable in this code since the two pointers are never compared. The two values do not even exist at the same time.
– Eric Postpischil
yesterday




@AndrewHenle: It is not observable in this code since the two pointers are never compared. The two values do not even exist at the same time.
– Eric Postpischil
yesterday










up vote
0
down vote













Yes, I think this is allowed by N3664






share|improve this answer





















  • That appears to be primarily related to C++ (particularly, the new operator).
    – usr
    yesterday






  • 1




    @usr clang claims to have implemented N3664, however, since C++ doesn't have realloc (in terms of new/delete) it might explain why malloc/free calls are optimized and realloc isn't?
    – Julius
    yesterday












  • @Julius C++ does have realloc. If it was a proposed change to relevant part of C standard, it'd be relevant.
    – usr
    yesterday






  • 3




    @usr Ah yes, you are right! I was thinking about an equivalent C++ operator such as new/delete. Stroustroup suggests to do reallocations through a container though.
    – Julius
    yesterday






  • 1




    @usr That's just the legacy-wrapper for the realloc() C function, and is not interoperable with new/delete. Even when combined with std::malloc() and std::free(), std::realloc() won't call any constructors/destructors the way std::vector<> does, so it's pretty much worthless for modern C++ programmers...
    – cmaster
    19 hours ago

















up vote
0
down vote













Yes, I think this is allowed by N3664






share|improve this answer





















  • That appears to be primarily related to C++ (particularly, the new operator).
    – usr
    yesterday






  • 1




    @usr clang claims to have implemented N3664, however, since C++ doesn't have realloc (in terms of new/delete) it might explain why malloc/free calls are optimized and realloc isn't?
    – Julius
    yesterday












  • @Julius C++ does have realloc. If it was a proposed change to relevant part of C standard, it'd be relevant.
    – usr
    yesterday






  • 3




    @usr Ah yes, you are right! I was thinking about an equivalent C++ operator such as new/delete. Stroustroup suggests to do reallocations through a container though.
    – Julius
    yesterday






  • 1




    @usr That's just the legacy-wrapper for the realloc() C function, and is not interoperable with new/delete. Even when combined with std::malloc() and std::free(), std::realloc() won't call any constructors/destructors the way std::vector<> does, so it's pretty much worthless for modern C++ programmers...
    – cmaster
    19 hours ago















up vote
0
down vote










up vote
0
down vote









Yes, I think this is allowed by N3664






share|improve this answer












Yes, I think this is allowed by N3664







share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered yesterday









bogdan tudose

436




436












  • That appears to be primarily related to C++ (particularly, the new operator).
    – usr
    yesterday






  • 1




    @usr clang claims to have implemented N3664, however, since C++ doesn't have realloc (in terms of new/delete) it might explain why malloc/free calls are optimized and realloc isn't?
    – Julius
    yesterday












  • @Julius C++ does have realloc. If it was a proposed change to relevant part of C standard, it'd be relevant.
    – usr
    yesterday






  • 3




    @usr Ah yes, you are right! I was thinking about an equivalent C++ operator such as new/delete. Stroustroup suggests to do reallocations through a container though.
    – Julius
    yesterday






  • 1




    @usr That's just the legacy-wrapper for the realloc() C function, and is not interoperable with new/delete. Even when combined with std::malloc() and std::free(), std::realloc() won't call any constructors/destructors the way std::vector<> does, so it's pretty much worthless for modern C++ programmers...
    – cmaster
    19 hours ago




















  • That appears to be primarily related to C++ (particularly, the new operator).
    – usr
    yesterday






  • 1




    @usr clang claims to have implemented N3664, however, since C++ doesn't have realloc (in terms of new/delete) it might explain why malloc/free calls are optimized and realloc isn't?
    – Julius
    yesterday












  • @Julius C++ does have realloc. If it was a proposed change to relevant part of C standard, it'd be relevant.
    – usr
    yesterday






  • 3




    @usr Ah yes, you are right! I was thinking about an equivalent C++ operator such as new/delete. Stroustroup suggests to do reallocations through a container though.
    – Julius
    yesterday






  • 1




    @usr That's just the legacy-wrapper for the realloc() C function, and is not interoperable with new/delete. Even when combined with std::malloc() and std::free(), std::realloc() won't call any constructors/destructors the way std::vector<> does, so it's pretty much worthless for modern C++ programmers...
    – cmaster
    19 hours ago


















That appears to be primarily related to C++ (particularly, the new operator).
– usr
yesterday




That appears to be primarily related to C++ (particularly, the new operator).
– usr
yesterday




1




1




@usr clang claims to have implemented N3664, however, since C++ doesn't have realloc (in terms of new/delete) it might explain why malloc/free calls are optimized and realloc isn't?
– Julius
yesterday






@usr clang claims to have implemented N3664, however, since C++ doesn't have realloc (in terms of new/delete) it might explain why malloc/free calls are optimized and realloc isn't?
– Julius
yesterday














@Julius C++ does have realloc. If it was a proposed change to relevant part of C standard, it'd be relevant.
– usr
yesterday




@Julius C++ does have realloc. If it was a proposed change to relevant part of C standard, it'd be relevant.
– usr
yesterday




3




3




@usr Ah yes, you are right! I was thinking about an equivalent C++ operator such as new/delete. Stroustroup suggests to do reallocations through a container though.
– Julius
yesterday




@usr Ah yes, you are right! I was thinking about an equivalent C++ operator such as new/delete. Stroustroup suggests to do reallocations through a container though.
– Julius
yesterday




1




1




@usr That's just the legacy-wrapper for the realloc() C function, and is not interoperable with new/delete. Even when combined with std::malloc() and std::free(), std::realloc() won't call any constructors/destructors the way std::vector<> does, so it's pretty much worthless for modern C++ programmers...
– cmaster
19 hours ago






@usr That's just the legacy-wrapper for the realloc() C function, and is not interoperable with new/delete. Even when combined with std::malloc() and std::free(), std::realloc() won't call any constructors/destructors the way std::vector<> does, so it's pretty much worthless for modern C++ programmers...
– cmaster
19 hours ago












up vote
0
down vote













But you're not checking the return value of the first malloc() which you're then using in the second realloc(). It could just as well be NULL.



How could the compiler optimize the two calls into a single one without making unwarranted assumptions about the return value of the first?



Then there is another possible scenario. FreeBSD used to have a realloc() which was basically malloc + memcpy + free the old pointer.



Suppose that there are only 230 bytes left of free memory. In that implementation, ptr = malloc(100) followed by realloc(ptr, 200) will fail, but a single malloc(200) will succeed.






share|improve this answer








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  • You are right about the checking, but I have submitted at least one example in the comments which include checking the return value - it doesn't seem to make a difference. Actually, the compiler does make such assumptions sometimes which I could demonstrate.
    – Julius
    4 hours ago

















up vote
0
down vote













But you're not checking the return value of the first malloc() which you're then using in the second realloc(). It could just as well be NULL.



How could the compiler optimize the two calls into a single one without making unwarranted assumptions about the return value of the first?



Then there is another possible scenario. FreeBSD used to have a realloc() which was basically malloc + memcpy + free the old pointer.



Suppose that there are only 230 bytes left of free memory. In that implementation, ptr = malloc(100) followed by realloc(ptr, 200) will fail, but a single malloc(200) will succeed.






share|improve this answer








New contributor




pizdelect is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.


















  • You are right about the checking, but I have submitted at least one example in the comments which include checking the return value - it doesn't seem to make a difference. Actually, the compiler does make such assumptions sometimes which I could demonstrate.
    – Julius
    4 hours ago















up vote
0
down vote










up vote
0
down vote









But you're not checking the return value of the first malloc() which you're then using in the second realloc(). It could just as well be NULL.



How could the compiler optimize the two calls into a single one without making unwarranted assumptions about the return value of the first?



Then there is another possible scenario. FreeBSD used to have a realloc() which was basically malloc + memcpy + free the old pointer.



Suppose that there are only 230 bytes left of free memory. In that implementation, ptr = malloc(100) followed by realloc(ptr, 200) will fail, but a single malloc(200) will succeed.






share|improve this answer








New contributor




pizdelect is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









But you're not checking the return value of the first malloc() which you're then using in the second realloc(). It could just as well be NULL.



How could the compiler optimize the two calls into a single one without making unwarranted assumptions about the return value of the first?



Then there is another possible scenario. FreeBSD used to have a realloc() which was basically malloc + memcpy + free the old pointer.



Suppose that there are only 230 bytes left of free memory. In that implementation, ptr = malloc(100) followed by realloc(ptr, 200) will fail, but a single malloc(200) will succeed.







share|improve this answer








New contributor




pizdelect is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer






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pizdelect is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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answered 6 hours ago









pizdelect

1




1




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New contributor





pizdelect is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






pizdelect is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.












  • You are right about the checking, but I have submitted at least one example in the comments which include checking the return value - it doesn't seem to make a difference. Actually, the compiler does make such assumptions sometimes which I could demonstrate.
    – Julius
    4 hours ago




















  • You are right about the checking, but I have submitted at least one example in the comments which include checking the return value - it doesn't seem to make a difference. Actually, the compiler does make such assumptions sometimes which I could demonstrate.
    – Julius
    4 hours ago


















You are right about the checking, but I have submitted at least one example in the comments which include checking the return value - it doesn't seem to make a difference. Actually, the compiler does make such assumptions sometimes which I could demonstrate.
– Julius
4 hours ago






You are right about the checking, but I have submitted at least one example in the comments which include checking the return value - it doesn't seem to make a difference. Actually, the compiler does make such assumptions sometimes which I could demonstrate.
– Julius
4 hours ago












Julius is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.










 

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