Faithfull representation of $mathfrak h rtimes V$.











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Let $V$ be a finite dimensional vector space and $mathfrak h subset mathfrak {gl} (V)$ a Lie Algebra. Consider the semidirect product $mathfrak h rtimes V$
$$[(H_1,v_1),(H_2,v_2)] = ([H_1,H_2], H_1 v_2 - H_2 v_1). $$



I'm stuck in this question




Question: Let $mathfrak{h} subset mathfrak {gl} (V)$ a Lie Algebra of linear transformations and consider the semidirect product $ mathfrak g = mathfrak h rtimes V $. Find a faithful representation of $mathfrak h rtimes V$.




Does anyone have any ideas?










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  • 1




    Is $V$ finite dimensional at least? (I asked just in case. I don't have a solution even for finite dimensional $V$ yet.)
    – Zvi
    yesterday












  • I do think so. I will edit my question.
    – Matheus Manzatto
    yesterday








  • 2




    If $V$ is finite dim, then Ado's theorem guarantees that a finite dim faithful representation exists. I just don't know how to construct it. The easy case is when $bigcap_{Hinmathfrak{h}} ker H={0}$. Then, the Lie algebra $mathfrak{h} rtimes V$ has trivial center, and therefore the adjoint representation is faithful.
    – Zvi
    yesterday












  • Yes. This kind of statement always confuses me, I think that "find" means "explicit construct". But I agree with you that Ado's theorem guarantees that this representation exists.
    – Matheus Manzatto
    yesterday















up vote
4
down vote

favorite
1












Let $V$ be a finite dimensional vector space and $mathfrak h subset mathfrak {gl} (V)$ a Lie Algebra. Consider the semidirect product $mathfrak h rtimes V$
$$[(H_1,v_1),(H_2,v_2)] = ([H_1,H_2], H_1 v_2 - H_2 v_1). $$



I'm stuck in this question




Question: Let $mathfrak{h} subset mathfrak {gl} (V)$ a Lie Algebra of linear transformations and consider the semidirect product $ mathfrak g = mathfrak h rtimes V $. Find a faithful representation of $mathfrak h rtimes V$.




Does anyone have any ideas?










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    Is $V$ finite dimensional at least? (I asked just in case. I don't have a solution even for finite dimensional $V$ yet.)
    – Zvi
    yesterday












  • I do think so. I will edit my question.
    – Matheus Manzatto
    yesterday








  • 2




    If $V$ is finite dim, then Ado's theorem guarantees that a finite dim faithful representation exists. I just don't know how to construct it. The easy case is when $bigcap_{Hinmathfrak{h}} ker H={0}$. Then, the Lie algebra $mathfrak{h} rtimes V$ has trivial center, and therefore the adjoint representation is faithful.
    – Zvi
    yesterday












  • Yes. This kind of statement always confuses me, I think that "find" means "explicit construct". But I agree with you that Ado's theorem guarantees that this representation exists.
    – Matheus Manzatto
    yesterday













up vote
4
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
4
down vote

favorite
1






1





Let $V$ be a finite dimensional vector space and $mathfrak h subset mathfrak {gl} (V)$ a Lie Algebra. Consider the semidirect product $mathfrak h rtimes V$
$$[(H_1,v_1),(H_2,v_2)] = ([H_1,H_2], H_1 v_2 - H_2 v_1). $$



I'm stuck in this question




Question: Let $mathfrak{h} subset mathfrak {gl} (V)$ a Lie Algebra of linear transformations and consider the semidirect product $ mathfrak g = mathfrak h rtimes V $. Find a faithful representation of $mathfrak h rtimes V$.




Does anyone have any ideas?










share|cite|improve this question















Let $V$ be a finite dimensional vector space and $mathfrak h subset mathfrak {gl} (V)$ a Lie Algebra. Consider the semidirect product $mathfrak h rtimes V$
$$[(H_1,v_1),(H_2,v_2)] = ([H_1,H_2], H_1 v_2 - H_2 v_1). $$



I'm stuck in this question




Question: Let $mathfrak{h} subset mathfrak {gl} (V)$ a Lie Algebra of linear transformations and consider the semidirect product $ mathfrak g = mathfrak h rtimes V $. Find a faithful representation of $mathfrak h rtimes V$.




Does anyone have any ideas?







abstract-algebra representation-theory lie-algebras






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited yesterday

























asked yesterday









Matheus Manzatto

1,2541523




1,2541523








  • 1




    Is $V$ finite dimensional at least? (I asked just in case. I don't have a solution even for finite dimensional $V$ yet.)
    – Zvi
    yesterday












  • I do think so. I will edit my question.
    – Matheus Manzatto
    yesterday








  • 2




    If $V$ is finite dim, then Ado's theorem guarantees that a finite dim faithful representation exists. I just don't know how to construct it. The easy case is when $bigcap_{Hinmathfrak{h}} ker H={0}$. Then, the Lie algebra $mathfrak{h} rtimes V$ has trivial center, and therefore the adjoint representation is faithful.
    – Zvi
    yesterday












  • Yes. This kind of statement always confuses me, I think that "find" means "explicit construct". But I agree with you that Ado's theorem guarantees that this representation exists.
    – Matheus Manzatto
    yesterday














  • 1




    Is $V$ finite dimensional at least? (I asked just in case. I don't have a solution even for finite dimensional $V$ yet.)
    – Zvi
    yesterday












  • I do think so. I will edit my question.
    – Matheus Manzatto
    yesterday








  • 2




    If $V$ is finite dim, then Ado's theorem guarantees that a finite dim faithful representation exists. I just don't know how to construct it. The easy case is when $bigcap_{Hinmathfrak{h}} ker H={0}$. Then, the Lie algebra $mathfrak{h} rtimes V$ has trivial center, and therefore the adjoint representation is faithful.
    – Zvi
    yesterday












  • Yes. This kind of statement always confuses me, I think that "find" means "explicit construct". But I agree with you that Ado's theorem guarantees that this representation exists.
    – Matheus Manzatto
    yesterday








1




1




Is $V$ finite dimensional at least? (I asked just in case. I don't have a solution even for finite dimensional $V$ yet.)
– Zvi
yesterday






Is $V$ finite dimensional at least? (I asked just in case. I don't have a solution even for finite dimensional $V$ yet.)
– Zvi
yesterday














I do think so. I will edit my question.
– Matheus Manzatto
yesterday






I do think so. I will edit my question.
– Matheus Manzatto
yesterday






2




2




If $V$ is finite dim, then Ado's theorem guarantees that a finite dim faithful representation exists. I just don't know how to construct it. The easy case is when $bigcap_{Hinmathfrak{h}} ker H={0}$. Then, the Lie algebra $mathfrak{h} rtimes V$ has trivial center, and therefore the adjoint representation is faithful.
– Zvi
yesterday






If $V$ is finite dim, then Ado's theorem guarantees that a finite dim faithful representation exists. I just don't know how to construct it. The easy case is when $bigcap_{Hinmathfrak{h}} ker H={0}$. Then, the Lie algebra $mathfrak{h} rtimes V$ has trivial center, and therefore the adjoint representation is faithful.
– Zvi
yesterday














Yes. This kind of statement always confuses me, I think that "find" means "explicit construct". But I agree with you that Ado's theorem guarantees that this representation exists.
– Matheus Manzatto
yesterday




Yes. This kind of statement always confuses me, I think that "find" means "explicit construct". But I agree with you that Ado's theorem guarantees that this representation exists.
– Matheus Manzatto
yesterday










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
5
down vote



accepted










An explicit representation is given by $rho:mathfrak{g}to mathfrak{gl}(mathbb Rtimes V)$,
$$rho(H,v)=begin{pmatrix}0 &0_{1times n} \ 0_{ntimes 1} & Hend{pmatrix}+begin{pmatrix}0 &0_{1times n} \ v & 0_{ntimes n}end{pmatrix}.$$
(here I think on $V$ as $mathbb{R}^n$, and use matrices).
The verification is straightforward.



More important then this is how to get there. Suppose $H$ is a Lie subgroup of $GL(V)$ that integrates $mathfrak{h}$. If you think on the natural semidirect product of the groups $H$ and $V$, $Hrtimes V$, then $Hrtimes V$ acts on $V$ by combining multiplication and translation:
$$(h,v)x=hx+v.$$
You can even define the semidirect product through this action. This action, however, is not linear. You can fix this situation by considering a slightly extended action on $Vtimes mathbb{R}$:
$$ (h,v)(x,alpha)=hx+alpha v.$$
(note that the last action imitates the first one when you restrict to ${1}times V$.) The last action (magically) happens to be linear. Taking $V=mathbb{R}^n$, its explicit representation is
$$tilderho(h,v)=begin{pmatrix}1 &0_{1times n} \ v & 0_{ntimes n}end{pmatrix}begin{pmatrix}1 &0_{1times n} \ 0_{ntimes 1} & hend{pmatrix}.$$
You just need to differentiate $tilde rho$.






share|cite|improve this answer

















  • 3




    I think your construction works over any base field $mathbb{F}$ even when $V$ is infinite dim. Define the $(mathfrak{h}rtimes V)$-action on $mathbb{F}times V$ by $(H,v)cdot (t,w)=(0,tv+Hw)$ for any $(H,v)in mathfrak{h}rtimes V$ and for any $(t,w) in mathbb{F}times V$. Therefore, there is no need to assume that $V$ is finite dim at all.
    – Zvi
    18 hours ago












  • Nice approach thx!
    – Matheus Manzatto
    17 hours ago











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1 Answer
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active

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up vote
5
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accepted










An explicit representation is given by $rho:mathfrak{g}to mathfrak{gl}(mathbb Rtimes V)$,
$$rho(H,v)=begin{pmatrix}0 &0_{1times n} \ 0_{ntimes 1} & Hend{pmatrix}+begin{pmatrix}0 &0_{1times n} \ v & 0_{ntimes n}end{pmatrix}.$$
(here I think on $V$ as $mathbb{R}^n$, and use matrices).
The verification is straightforward.



More important then this is how to get there. Suppose $H$ is a Lie subgroup of $GL(V)$ that integrates $mathfrak{h}$. If you think on the natural semidirect product of the groups $H$ and $V$, $Hrtimes V$, then $Hrtimes V$ acts on $V$ by combining multiplication and translation:
$$(h,v)x=hx+v.$$
You can even define the semidirect product through this action. This action, however, is not linear. You can fix this situation by considering a slightly extended action on $Vtimes mathbb{R}$:
$$ (h,v)(x,alpha)=hx+alpha v.$$
(note that the last action imitates the first one when you restrict to ${1}times V$.) The last action (magically) happens to be linear. Taking $V=mathbb{R}^n$, its explicit representation is
$$tilderho(h,v)=begin{pmatrix}1 &0_{1times n} \ v & 0_{ntimes n}end{pmatrix}begin{pmatrix}1 &0_{1times n} \ 0_{ntimes 1} & hend{pmatrix}.$$
You just need to differentiate $tilde rho$.






share|cite|improve this answer

















  • 3




    I think your construction works over any base field $mathbb{F}$ even when $V$ is infinite dim. Define the $(mathfrak{h}rtimes V)$-action on $mathbb{F}times V$ by $(H,v)cdot (t,w)=(0,tv+Hw)$ for any $(H,v)in mathfrak{h}rtimes V$ and for any $(t,w) in mathbb{F}times V$. Therefore, there is no need to assume that $V$ is finite dim at all.
    – Zvi
    18 hours ago












  • Nice approach thx!
    – Matheus Manzatto
    17 hours ago















up vote
5
down vote



accepted










An explicit representation is given by $rho:mathfrak{g}to mathfrak{gl}(mathbb Rtimes V)$,
$$rho(H,v)=begin{pmatrix}0 &0_{1times n} \ 0_{ntimes 1} & Hend{pmatrix}+begin{pmatrix}0 &0_{1times n} \ v & 0_{ntimes n}end{pmatrix}.$$
(here I think on $V$ as $mathbb{R}^n$, and use matrices).
The verification is straightforward.



More important then this is how to get there. Suppose $H$ is a Lie subgroup of $GL(V)$ that integrates $mathfrak{h}$. If you think on the natural semidirect product of the groups $H$ and $V$, $Hrtimes V$, then $Hrtimes V$ acts on $V$ by combining multiplication and translation:
$$(h,v)x=hx+v.$$
You can even define the semidirect product through this action. This action, however, is not linear. You can fix this situation by considering a slightly extended action on $Vtimes mathbb{R}$:
$$ (h,v)(x,alpha)=hx+alpha v.$$
(note that the last action imitates the first one when you restrict to ${1}times V$.) The last action (magically) happens to be linear. Taking $V=mathbb{R}^n$, its explicit representation is
$$tilderho(h,v)=begin{pmatrix}1 &0_{1times n} \ v & 0_{ntimes n}end{pmatrix}begin{pmatrix}1 &0_{1times n} \ 0_{ntimes 1} & hend{pmatrix}.$$
You just need to differentiate $tilde rho$.






share|cite|improve this answer

















  • 3




    I think your construction works over any base field $mathbb{F}$ even when $V$ is infinite dim. Define the $(mathfrak{h}rtimes V)$-action on $mathbb{F}times V$ by $(H,v)cdot (t,w)=(0,tv+Hw)$ for any $(H,v)in mathfrak{h}rtimes V$ and for any $(t,w) in mathbb{F}times V$. Therefore, there is no need to assume that $V$ is finite dim at all.
    – Zvi
    18 hours ago












  • Nice approach thx!
    – Matheus Manzatto
    17 hours ago













up vote
5
down vote



accepted







up vote
5
down vote



accepted






An explicit representation is given by $rho:mathfrak{g}to mathfrak{gl}(mathbb Rtimes V)$,
$$rho(H,v)=begin{pmatrix}0 &0_{1times n} \ 0_{ntimes 1} & Hend{pmatrix}+begin{pmatrix}0 &0_{1times n} \ v & 0_{ntimes n}end{pmatrix}.$$
(here I think on $V$ as $mathbb{R}^n$, and use matrices).
The verification is straightforward.



More important then this is how to get there. Suppose $H$ is a Lie subgroup of $GL(V)$ that integrates $mathfrak{h}$. If you think on the natural semidirect product of the groups $H$ and $V$, $Hrtimes V$, then $Hrtimes V$ acts on $V$ by combining multiplication and translation:
$$(h,v)x=hx+v.$$
You can even define the semidirect product through this action. This action, however, is not linear. You can fix this situation by considering a slightly extended action on $Vtimes mathbb{R}$:
$$ (h,v)(x,alpha)=hx+alpha v.$$
(note that the last action imitates the first one when you restrict to ${1}times V$.) The last action (magically) happens to be linear. Taking $V=mathbb{R}^n$, its explicit representation is
$$tilderho(h,v)=begin{pmatrix}1 &0_{1times n} \ v & 0_{ntimes n}end{pmatrix}begin{pmatrix}1 &0_{1times n} \ 0_{ntimes 1} & hend{pmatrix}.$$
You just need to differentiate $tilde rho$.






share|cite|improve this answer












An explicit representation is given by $rho:mathfrak{g}to mathfrak{gl}(mathbb Rtimes V)$,
$$rho(H,v)=begin{pmatrix}0 &0_{1times n} \ 0_{ntimes 1} & Hend{pmatrix}+begin{pmatrix}0 &0_{1times n} \ v & 0_{ntimes n}end{pmatrix}.$$
(here I think on $V$ as $mathbb{R}^n$, and use matrices).
The verification is straightforward.



More important then this is how to get there. Suppose $H$ is a Lie subgroup of $GL(V)$ that integrates $mathfrak{h}$. If you think on the natural semidirect product of the groups $H$ and $V$, $Hrtimes V$, then $Hrtimes V$ acts on $V$ by combining multiplication and translation:
$$(h,v)x=hx+v.$$
You can even define the semidirect product through this action. This action, however, is not linear. You can fix this situation by considering a slightly extended action on $Vtimes mathbb{R}$:
$$ (h,v)(x,alpha)=hx+alpha v.$$
(note that the last action imitates the first one when you restrict to ${1}times V$.) The last action (magically) happens to be linear. Taking $V=mathbb{R}^n$, its explicit representation is
$$tilderho(h,v)=begin{pmatrix}1 &0_{1times n} \ v & 0_{ntimes n}end{pmatrix}begin{pmatrix}1 &0_{1times n} \ 0_{ntimes 1} & hend{pmatrix}.$$
You just need to differentiate $tilde rho$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered 19 hours ago









Llohann

70329




70329








  • 3




    I think your construction works over any base field $mathbb{F}$ even when $V$ is infinite dim. Define the $(mathfrak{h}rtimes V)$-action on $mathbb{F}times V$ by $(H,v)cdot (t,w)=(0,tv+Hw)$ for any $(H,v)in mathfrak{h}rtimes V$ and for any $(t,w) in mathbb{F}times V$. Therefore, there is no need to assume that $V$ is finite dim at all.
    – Zvi
    18 hours ago












  • Nice approach thx!
    – Matheus Manzatto
    17 hours ago














  • 3




    I think your construction works over any base field $mathbb{F}$ even when $V$ is infinite dim. Define the $(mathfrak{h}rtimes V)$-action on $mathbb{F}times V$ by $(H,v)cdot (t,w)=(0,tv+Hw)$ for any $(H,v)in mathfrak{h}rtimes V$ and for any $(t,w) in mathbb{F}times V$. Therefore, there is no need to assume that $V$ is finite dim at all.
    – Zvi
    18 hours ago












  • Nice approach thx!
    – Matheus Manzatto
    17 hours ago








3




3




I think your construction works over any base field $mathbb{F}$ even when $V$ is infinite dim. Define the $(mathfrak{h}rtimes V)$-action on $mathbb{F}times V$ by $(H,v)cdot (t,w)=(0,tv+Hw)$ for any $(H,v)in mathfrak{h}rtimes V$ and for any $(t,w) in mathbb{F}times V$. Therefore, there is no need to assume that $V$ is finite dim at all.
– Zvi
18 hours ago






I think your construction works over any base field $mathbb{F}$ even when $V$ is infinite dim. Define the $(mathfrak{h}rtimes V)$-action on $mathbb{F}times V$ by $(H,v)cdot (t,w)=(0,tv+Hw)$ for any $(H,v)in mathfrak{h}rtimes V$ and for any $(t,w) in mathbb{F}times V$. Therefore, there is no need to assume that $V$ is finite dim at all.
– Zvi
18 hours ago














Nice approach thx!
– Matheus Manzatto
17 hours ago




Nice approach thx!
– Matheus Manzatto
17 hours ago


















 

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