Homotopy invariance of relative homology











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I have studied the proof of the homotopy invariance of singular homology. If I understood correctly, the key step is to transform a homotopy $F : X times I to Y$ between the maps $f, g : X to Y$, into a chain homotopy between the induced chain maps $f_n, g_n : X_n to Y_n$. For this purpose, we define the prism natural transformation $P_n : mathcal C_n to mathcal D_n$ between the functors $mathcal C_n(X) = X_n$ and $mathcal D_n(X) = (X times I)_{n+1}$. This allows us to form the following chain homotopy:



Chain homotopy



Now I am trying to obtain a similar result for relative homology. Let $A subset X$ and $B subset Y$ be subspaces, and let $F : (X times I, A times I) to (Y,B)$ be a homotopy between $f, g : (X,A) to (Y,B)$. I want to construct the following commutative parallelepiped:



Chain homotopy



The homotopy invariance of absolute homology gives me the left and middle faces. If two chains in $X_n$ differ by a chain in $A_n$, their prisms differ by a chain in $(A times I)_{n+1}$, so the right face is well-defined as well. This gives me a copy of the first diagram, with $X_n$, $Y_n$, $(X times I)_n$ replaced with $X_n / A_n$, $Y_n / B_n$, $(X times I)_n / (A times I)_n$ respectively. The diagonals



$$frac {X_n} {A_n} longrightarrow frac {(X times I)_{n+1}} {(A times I)_{n+1}} longrightarrow frac {Y_{n+1}} {B_{n+1}}$$



constitute a chain homotopy between $f$ and $g$, so the relative homology groups are equal. Does this work? Is there anything missing?










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  • 4




    The prism operator maps $ mathcal C_n(A)$ to $mathcal D_n(B)$ so it induces an operator $: mathcal C_n(X,A) to mathcal D_n(Y,B)$ on the relative chain groups. Then the proof goes through as in the absolute case. Or am I missing something?
    – Matematleta
    Nov 18 at 4:15















up vote
3
down vote

favorite












I have studied the proof of the homotopy invariance of singular homology. If I understood correctly, the key step is to transform a homotopy $F : X times I to Y$ between the maps $f, g : X to Y$, into a chain homotopy between the induced chain maps $f_n, g_n : X_n to Y_n$. For this purpose, we define the prism natural transformation $P_n : mathcal C_n to mathcal D_n$ between the functors $mathcal C_n(X) = X_n$ and $mathcal D_n(X) = (X times I)_{n+1}$. This allows us to form the following chain homotopy:



Chain homotopy



Now I am trying to obtain a similar result for relative homology. Let $A subset X$ and $B subset Y$ be subspaces, and let $F : (X times I, A times I) to (Y,B)$ be a homotopy between $f, g : (X,A) to (Y,B)$. I want to construct the following commutative parallelepiped:



Chain homotopy



The homotopy invariance of absolute homology gives me the left and middle faces. If two chains in $X_n$ differ by a chain in $A_n$, their prisms differ by a chain in $(A times I)_{n+1}$, so the right face is well-defined as well. This gives me a copy of the first diagram, with $X_n$, $Y_n$, $(X times I)_n$ replaced with $X_n / A_n$, $Y_n / B_n$, $(X times I)_n / (A times I)_n$ respectively. The diagonals



$$frac {X_n} {A_n} longrightarrow frac {(X times I)_{n+1}} {(A times I)_{n+1}} longrightarrow frac {Y_{n+1}} {B_{n+1}}$$



constitute a chain homotopy between $f$ and $g$, so the relative homology groups are equal. Does this work? Is there anything missing?










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 4




    The prism operator maps $ mathcal C_n(A)$ to $mathcal D_n(B)$ so it induces an operator $: mathcal C_n(X,A) to mathcal D_n(Y,B)$ on the relative chain groups. Then the proof goes through as in the absolute case. Or am I missing something?
    – Matematleta
    Nov 18 at 4:15













up vote
3
down vote

favorite









up vote
3
down vote

favorite











I have studied the proof of the homotopy invariance of singular homology. If I understood correctly, the key step is to transform a homotopy $F : X times I to Y$ between the maps $f, g : X to Y$, into a chain homotopy between the induced chain maps $f_n, g_n : X_n to Y_n$. For this purpose, we define the prism natural transformation $P_n : mathcal C_n to mathcal D_n$ between the functors $mathcal C_n(X) = X_n$ and $mathcal D_n(X) = (X times I)_{n+1}$. This allows us to form the following chain homotopy:



Chain homotopy



Now I am trying to obtain a similar result for relative homology. Let $A subset X$ and $B subset Y$ be subspaces, and let $F : (X times I, A times I) to (Y,B)$ be a homotopy between $f, g : (X,A) to (Y,B)$. I want to construct the following commutative parallelepiped:



Chain homotopy



The homotopy invariance of absolute homology gives me the left and middle faces. If two chains in $X_n$ differ by a chain in $A_n$, their prisms differ by a chain in $(A times I)_{n+1}$, so the right face is well-defined as well. This gives me a copy of the first diagram, with $X_n$, $Y_n$, $(X times I)_n$ replaced with $X_n / A_n$, $Y_n / B_n$, $(X times I)_n / (A times I)_n$ respectively. The diagonals



$$frac {X_n} {A_n} longrightarrow frac {(X times I)_{n+1}} {(A times I)_{n+1}} longrightarrow frac {Y_{n+1}} {B_{n+1}}$$



constitute a chain homotopy between $f$ and $g$, so the relative homology groups are equal. Does this work? Is there anything missing?










share|cite|improve this question















I have studied the proof of the homotopy invariance of singular homology. If I understood correctly, the key step is to transform a homotopy $F : X times I to Y$ between the maps $f, g : X to Y$, into a chain homotopy between the induced chain maps $f_n, g_n : X_n to Y_n$. For this purpose, we define the prism natural transformation $P_n : mathcal C_n to mathcal D_n$ between the functors $mathcal C_n(X) = X_n$ and $mathcal D_n(X) = (X times I)_{n+1}$. This allows us to form the following chain homotopy:



Chain homotopy



Now I am trying to obtain a similar result for relative homology. Let $A subset X$ and $B subset Y$ be subspaces, and let $F : (X times I, A times I) to (Y,B)$ be a homotopy between $f, g : (X,A) to (Y,B)$. I want to construct the following commutative parallelepiped:



Chain homotopy



The homotopy invariance of absolute homology gives me the left and middle faces. If two chains in $X_n$ differ by a chain in $A_n$, their prisms differ by a chain in $(A times I)_{n+1}$, so the right face is well-defined as well. This gives me a copy of the first diagram, with $X_n$, $Y_n$, $(X times I)_n$ replaced with $X_n / A_n$, $Y_n / B_n$, $(X times I)_n / (A times I)_n$ respectively. The diagonals



$$frac {X_n} {A_n} longrightarrow frac {(X times I)_{n+1}} {(A times I)_{n+1}} longrightarrow frac {Y_{n+1}} {B_{n+1}}$$



constitute a chain homotopy between $f$ and $g$, so the relative homology groups are equal. Does this work? Is there anything missing?







algebraic-topology homology-cohomology






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited 2 days ago

























asked Nov 18 at 1:25









pyon

26719




26719








  • 4




    The prism operator maps $ mathcal C_n(A)$ to $mathcal D_n(B)$ so it induces an operator $: mathcal C_n(X,A) to mathcal D_n(Y,B)$ on the relative chain groups. Then the proof goes through as in the absolute case. Or am I missing something?
    – Matematleta
    Nov 18 at 4:15














  • 4




    The prism operator maps $ mathcal C_n(A)$ to $mathcal D_n(B)$ so it induces an operator $: mathcal C_n(X,A) to mathcal D_n(Y,B)$ on the relative chain groups. Then the proof goes through as in the absolute case. Or am I missing something?
    – Matematleta
    Nov 18 at 4:15








4




4




The prism operator maps $ mathcal C_n(A)$ to $mathcal D_n(B)$ so it induces an operator $: mathcal C_n(X,A) to mathcal D_n(Y,B)$ on the relative chain groups. Then the proof goes through as in the absolute case. Or am I missing something?
– Matematleta
Nov 18 at 4:15




The prism operator maps $ mathcal C_n(A)$ to $mathcal D_n(B)$ so it induces an operator $: mathcal C_n(X,A) to mathcal D_n(Y,B)$ on the relative chain groups. Then the proof goes through as in the absolute case. Or am I missing something?
– Matematleta
Nov 18 at 4:15










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The missing step is the actual calculation. By the homotopy invariance of absolute homology, we have



$$partial_{n+1} F_{n+1} P_n gamma + F_n P_{n-1} partial_n gamma = g_n gamma - f_n gamma$$



Let $gamma in X_n$ be a relative cycle. In other words, suppose that $partial_n gamma in A_{n-1}$. Then $F_n P_{n-1} partial_n gamma in B_n$, hence $g_n gamma - f_n gamma$ is a relative boundary, hence $f$ and $g$ have the same relative homology at the level $n$.






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    The missing step is the actual calculation. By the homotopy invariance of absolute homology, we have



    $$partial_{n+1} F_{n+1} P_n gamma + F_n P_{n-1} partial_n gamma = g_n gamma - f_n gamma$$



    Let $gamma in X_n$ be a relative cycle. In other words, suppose that $partial_n gamma in A_{n-1}$. Then $F_n P_{n-1} partial_n gamma in B_n$, hence $g_n gamma - f_n gamma$ is a relative boundary, hence $f$ and $g$ have the same relative homology at the level $n$.






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      0
      down vote



      accepted










      The missing step is the actual calculation. By the homotopy invariance of absolute homology, we have



      $$partial_{n+1} F_{n+1} P_n gamma + F_n P_{n-1} partial_n gamma = g_n gamma - f_n gamma$$



      Let $gamma in X_n$ be a relative cycle. In other words, suppose that $partial_n gamma in A_{n-1}$. Then $F_n P_{n-1} partial_n gamma in B_n$, hence $g_n gamma - f_n gamma$ is a relative boundary, hence $f$ and $g$ have the same relative homology at the level $n$.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        0
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        0
        down vote



        accepted






        The missing step is the actual calculation. By the homotopy invariance of absolute homology, we have



        $$partial_{n+1} F_{n+1} P_n gamma + F_n P_{n-1} partial_n gamma = g_n gamma - f_n gamma$$



        Let $gamma in X_n$ be a relative cycle. In other words, suppose that $partial_n gamma in A_{n-1}$. Then $F_n P_{n-1} partial_n gamma in B_n$, hence $g_n gamma - f_n gamma$ is a relative boundary, hence $f$ and $g$ have the same relative homology at the level $n$.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        The missing step is the actual calculation. By the homotopy invariance of absolute homology, we have



        $$partial_{n+1} F_{n+1} P_n gamma + F_n P_{n-1} partial_n gamma = g_n gamma - f_n gamma$$



        Let $gamma in X_n$ be a relative cycle. In other words, suppose that $partial_n gamma in A_{n-1}$. Then $F_n P_{n-1} partial_n gamma in B_n$, hence $g_n gamma - f_n gamma$ is a relative boundary, hence $f$ and $g$ have the same relative homology at the level $n$.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited yesterday

























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