Limit of a sequence of integrals involving continued fractions











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The following question was asked in a calculus exam in UNI, a Peruvian university. It is meant to be for freshman calculus students.




Find $lim_{n to infty} A_n $ if



$$ A_1 = intlimits_0^1 frac{dx}{1 + sqrt{x} }, ; ; ; A_2 =
intlimits_0^1 frac{dx}{1 + frac{1}{1+sqrt{x}} }, ; ; ; A_3 =
intlimits_0^1 frac{dx}{1 + frac{1}{1+frac{1}{1+sqrt{x}}} },
...$$




First of all, I think this is a hard question for a midterm exam, but anyway, notice that we can calculate $A_1$ by making $t=sqrt{x}$



$$ A_1 = intlimits_0^1 frac{2 t dt }{1+t} = 2 intlimits_0^1 dt - 2 intlimits_0^1 frac{dt}{1+t}=2-2(ln2)=2-ln2^2 $$



Now, as for $A_2$ I would do $t = frac{1}{1+sqrt{x}}$ which gives $d t = frac{ dx}{2 sqrt{x} (1+sqrt{x})^2} = frac{t^2 dx}{2 (t-1)}$ thus upon sustituticion we get



$$ A_2 = - intlimits_1^{1/2} frac{2 (t-1) }{t^2(1+t) } dt $$



which can easily solved by partial fractions or so. But, apparently this is not the way this problem is meant to be solved as this exam contained 4 questions to be solved in an hour. What is the trick, if any, that can be used to solve this problem without doing the unellegant partial fractions?










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  • Can you prove it is valid to change the position of $lim$ and $int$?
    – Kemono Chen
    16 hours ago






  • 1




    If we let the integrand of $A_n$ be $f_n$, then $f_{n+1}=1/(1+f_n)$. If $f_infty$ exists, then necessarily $$f_infty=1/(1+f_infty)implies f_infty^2+f_infty-1=0$$. Indeed, $f_inftyequiv frac{-1+sqrt 5}2$ is a constant function. The main problem is justifying the switching of order between integral and limit. Dominated convergence theorem surely will do the job.
    – Szeto
    16 hours ago






  • 1




    @Szeto: Could you post your comment as an answer (with details)? ( ̄▽ ̄)
    – Tianlalu
    16 hours ago






  • 1




    I think this is meant to be solved without that dominated convergence theorem as it is meant for first-year students.
    – Jimmy Sabater
    16 hours ago






  • 1




    @JimmySabater Although first-year students have never heard of the dominated convergence theorem, they often act as though it were obvious.
    – Andreas Blass
    6 hours ago















up vote
11
down vote

favorite
7












The following question was asked in a calculus exam in UNI, a Peruvian university. It is meant to be for freshman calculus students.




Find $lim_{n to infty} A_n $ if



$$ A_1 = intlimits_0^1 frac{dx}{1 + sqrt{x} }, ; ; ; A_2 =
intlimits_0^1 frac{dx}{1 + frac{1}{1+sqrt{x}} }, ; ; ; A_3 =
intlimits_0^1 frac{dx}{1 + frac{1}{1+frac{1}{1+sqrt{x}}} },
...$$




First of all, I think this is a hard question for a midterm exam, but anyway, notice that we can calculate $A_1$ by making $t=sqrt{x}$



$$ A_1 = intlimits_0^1 frac{2 t dt }{1+t} = 2 intlimits_0^1 dt - 2 intlimits_0^1 frac{dt}{1+t}=2-2(ln2)=2-ln2^2 $$



Now, as for $A_2$ I would do $t = frac{1}{1+sqrt{x}}$ which gives $d t = frac{ dx}{2 sqrt{x} (1+sqrt{x})^2} = frac{t^2 dx}{2 (t-1)}$ thus upon sustituticion we get



$$ A_2 = - intlimits_1^{1/2} frac{2 (t-1) }{t^2(1+t) } dt $$



which can easily solved by partial fractions or so. But, apparently this is not the way this problem is meant to be solved as this exam contained 4 questions to be solved in an hour. What is the trick, if any, that can be used to solve this problem without doing the unellegant partial fractions?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Can you prove it is valid to change the position of $lim$ and $int$?
    – Kemono Chen
    16 hours ago






  • 1




    If we let the integrand of $A_n$ be $f_n$, then $f_{n+1}=1/(1+f_n)$. If $f_infty$ exists, then necessarily $$f_infty=1/(1+f_infty)implies f_infty^2+f_infty-1=0$$. Indeed, $f_inftyequiv frac{-1+sqrt 5}2$ is a constant function. The main problem is justifying the switching of order between integral and limit. Dominated convergence theorem surely will do the job.
    – Szeto
    16 hours ago






  • 1




    @Szeto: Could you post your comment as an answer (with details)? ( ̄▽ ̄)
    – Tianlalu
    16 hours ago






  • 1




    I think this is meant to be solved without that dominated convergence theorem as it is meant for first-year students.
    – Jimmy Sabater
    16 hours ago






  • 1




    @JimmySabater Although first-year students have never heard of the dominated convergence theorem, they often act as though it were obvious.
    – Andreas Blass
    6 hours ago













up vote
11
down vote

favorite
7









up vote
11
down vote

favorite
7






7





The following question was asked in a calculus exam in UNI, a Peruvian university. It is meant to be for freshman calculus students.




Find $lim_{n to infty} A_n $ if



$$ A_1 = intlimits_0^1 frac{dx}{1 + sqrt{x} }, ; ; ; A_2 =
intlimits_0^1 frac{dx}{1 + frac{1}{1+sqrt{x}} }, ; ; ; A_3 =
intlimits_0^1 frac{dx}{1 + frac{1}{1+frac{1}{1+sqrt{x}}} },
...$$




First of all, I think this is a hard question for a midterm exam, but anyway, notice that we can calculate $A_1$ by making $t=sqrt{x}$



$$ A_1 = intlimits_0^1 frac{2 t dt }{1+t} = 2 intlimits_0^1 dt - 2 intlimits_0^1 frac{dt}{1+t}=2-2(ln2)=2-ln2^2 $$



Now, as for $A_2$ I would do $t = frac{1}{1+sqrt{x}}$ which gives $d t = frac{ dx}{2 sqrt{x} (1+sqrt{x})^2} = frac{t^2 dx}{2 (t-1)}$ thus upon sustituticion we get



$$ A_2 = - intlimits_1^{1/2} frac{2 (t-1) }{t^2(1+t) } dt $$



which can easily solved by partial fractions or so. But, apparently this is not the way this problem is meant to be solved as this exam contained 4 questions to be solved in an hour. What is the trick, if any, that can be used to solve this problem without doing the unellegant partial fractions?










share|cite|improve this question















The following question was asked in a calculus exam in UNI, a Peruvian university. It is meant to be for freshman calculus students.




Find $lim_{n to infty} A_n $ if



$$ A_1 = intlimits_0^1 frac{dx}{1 + sqrt{x} }, ; ; ; A_2 =
intlimits_0^1 frac{dx}{1 + frac{1}{1+sqrt{x}} }, ; ; ; A_3 =
intlimits_0^1 frac{dx}{1 + frac{1}{1+frac{1}{1+sqrt{x}}} },
...$$




First of all, I think this is a hard question for a midterm exam, but anyway, notice that we can calculate $A_1$ by making $t=sqrt{x}$



$$ A_1 = intlimits_0^1 frac{2 t dt }{1+t} = 2 intlimits_0^1 dt - 2 intlimits_0^1 frac{dt}{1+t}=2-2(ln2)=2-ln2^2 $$



Now, as for $A_2$ I would do $t = frac{1}{1+sqrt{x}}$ which gives $d t = frac{ dx}{2 sqrt{x} (1+sqrt{x})^2} = frac{t^2 dx}{2 (t-1)}$ thus upon sustituticion we get



$$ A_2 = - intlimits_1^{1/2} frac{2 (t-1) }{t^2(1+t) } dt $$



which can easily solved by partial fractions or so. But, apparently this is not the way this problem is meant to be solved as this exam contained 4 questions to be solved in an hour. What is the trick, if any, that can be used to solve this problem without doing the unellegant partial fractions?







calculus limits definite-integrals continued-fractions






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited 4 hours ago









200_success

669515




669515










asked 17 hours ago









Jimmy Sabater

1,799218




1,799218












  • Can you prove it is valid to change the position of $lim$ and $int$?
    – Kemono Chen
    16 hours ago






  • 1




    If we let the integrand of $A_n$ be $f_n$, then $f_{n+1}=1/(1+f_n)$. If $f_infty$ exists, then necessarily $$f_infty=1/(1+f_infty)implies f_infty^2+f_infty-1=0$$. Indeed, $f_inftyequiv frac{-1+sqrt 5}2$ is a constant function. The main problem is justifying the switching of order between integral and limit. Dominated convergence theorem surely will do the job.
    – Szeto
    16 hours ago






  • 1




    @Szeto: Could you post your comment as an answer (with details)? ( ̄▽ ̄)
    – Tianlalu
    16 hours ago






  • 1




    I think this is meant to be solved without that dominated convergence theorem as it is meant for first-year students.
    – Jimmy Sabater
    16 hours ago






  • 1




    @JimmySabater Although first-year students have never heard of the dominated convergence theorem, they often act as though it were obvious.
    – Andreas Blass
    6 hours ago


















  • Can you prove it is valid to change the position of $lim$ and $int$?
    – Kemono Chen
    16 hours ago






  • 1




    If we let the integrand of $A_n$ be $f_n$, then $f_{n+1}=1/(1+f_n)$. If $f_infty$ exists, then necessarily $$f_infty=1/(1+f_infty)implies f_infty^2+f_infty-1=0$$. Indeed, $f_inftyequiv frac{-1+sqrt 5}2$ is a constant function. The main problem is justifying the switching of order between integral and limit. Dominated convergence theorem surely will do the job.
    – Szeto
    16 hours ago






  • 1




    @Szeto: Could you post your comment as an answer (with details)? ( ̄▽ ̄)
    – Tianlalu
    16 hours ago






  • 1




    I think this is meant to be solved without that dominated convergence theorem as it is meant for first-year students.
    – Jimmy Sabater
    16 hours ago






  • 1




    @JimmySabater Although first-year students have never heard of the dominated convergence theorem, they often act as though it were obvious.
    – Andreas Blass
    6 hours ago
















Can you prove it is valid to change the position of $lim$ and $int$?
– Kemono Chen
16 hours ago




Can you prove it is valid to change the position of $lim$ and $int$?
– Kemono Chen
16 hours ago




1




1




If we let the integrand of $A_n$ be $f_n$, then $f_{n+1}=1/(1+f_n)$. If $f_infty$ exists, then necessarily $$f_infty=1/(1+f_infty)implies f_infty^2+f_infty-1=0$$. Indeed, $f_inftyequiv frac{-1+sqrt 5}2$ is a constant function. The main problem is justifying the switching of order between integral and limit. Dominated convergence theorem surely will do the job.
– Szeto
16 hours ago




If we let the integrand of $A_n$ be $f_n$, then $f_{n+1}=1/(1+f_n)$. If $f_infty$ exists, then necessarily $$f_infty=1/(1+f_infty)implies f_infty^2+f_infty-1=0$$. Indeed, $f_inftyequiv frac{-1+sqrt 5}2$ is a constant function. The main problem is justifying the switching of order between integral and limit. Dominated convergence theorem surely will do the job.
– Szeto
16 hours ago




1




1




@Szeto: Could you post your comment as an answer (with details)? ( ̄▽ ̄)
– Tianlalu
16 hours ago




@Szeto: Could you post your comment as an answer (with details)? ( ̄▽ ̄)
– Tianlalu
16 hours ago




1




1




I think this is meant to be solved without that dominated convergence theorem as it is meant for first-year students.
– Jimmy Sabater
16 hours ago




I think this is meant to be solved without that dominated convergence theorem as it is meant for first-year students.
– Jimmy Sabater
16 hours ago




1




1




@JimmySabater Although first-year students have never heard of the dominated convergence theorem, they often act as though it were obvious.
– Andreas Blass
6 hours ago




@JimmySabater Although first-year students have never heard of the dominated convergence theorem, they often act as though it were obvious.
– Andreas Blass
6 hours ago










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
13
down vote



accepted










By the substitution $t=sqrt x$,
$$A_n=int^1_0f_n(t^2)(2tdt)$$



$f_n(t^2)$ is of the form
$$f_n(t^2)=frac{a_n+b_nt}{c_n+d_nt}$$



We have the recurrence relation
$$a_{n+1}=c_n$$
$$b_{n+1}=d_n$$
$$c_{n+1}=a_n+c_n$$
$$d_{n+1}=b_n+d_n$$



Or
$$c_{n+1}=c_n+c_{n-1}$$
$$d_{n+1}=d_n+d_{n-1}$$



which are the Fibonacci recurrence with initial conditions
$$c_0=1, c_1=1$$
$$d_0=0, d_1=1$$



I think you can now proceed.



Also, the general term of Fibonacci sequence $0,1,1,cdots$ is
$$frac{phi^n-overlinephi^n}{sqrt5}$$ where $phi=frac{1+sqrt 5}2$.






share|cite|improve this answer



















  • 8




    It is very nice, but I believe this is a hard question to ask in a midterm for beginners. I dont think there is a more elementary solution, correct?
    – Jimmy Sabater
    16 hours ago


















up vote
15
down vote













If I were taking that exam, I'd speculate covergence and write the integrand for $A_infty$ as
$$ S_infty(x) = frac{1}{ 1 + frac{1}{1+frac{1}{1+frac{1}{ddots} }}} = frac{1}{1+S_infty(x)}$$
Solve the resulting quadratic for $S_infty^2(x) + S_infty(x) -1 = 0$ for $S_infty(x)=frac{-1+sqrt{5}}{2}$. Then we immediately have $A_infty = S_infty$.



Then, I'd sit there and wonder what they intended for me to actually show on a freshman calculus exam.






share|cite|improve this answer

















  • 2




    Well, this is already mentioned in my comment on the OP. I don’t see the point to repost it as an answer. Moreover, this answer does not mention the switching of integral and limit, which is highly non-trivial. Poorly written.
    – Szeto
    14 hours ago








  • 15




    @Szeto Comments to the question should be left to improve the question, not to answer it. Comments may also be deleted if they do not serve this purpose. You should have incorporated your remarks into an/your answer.
    – Dubu
    14 hours ago






  • 9




    @Szeto Are you suggesting that I copied your comment? Because I didn't pay attention to it. This answer is simply what would first cross my mind in a test-taking scenario. Your comment has strong points in it, and I encourage you to turn it into an answer.
    – zahbaz
    13 hours ago










  • @zahbaz The may also have "intended" you to show that the limit actually exists, which is easy enough to prove.
    – alephzero
    10 hours ago










  • @zahbaz Is there a particular reason you choose the positive root to the quadratic equation?
    – Jonathan Chiang
    1 hour ago


















up vote
3
down vote













Let $A_n = intlimits_0^1 f_n(x) dx$. First show that each $f_n$ is a monotonically increasing or decreasing function in the range $[0,1]$, and hence $A_n$ lies between $f_n(0)$ and $f_n(1)$. Then note that



$f_n(0) = 1, frac{1}{2}, frac{2}{3}, frac{3}{5}, dots$



are the convergents of the continued fraction expansion of $phi$, and $f_n(1) = f_{n+1}(0)$. So we have



$frac{1}{2} le A_1 le 1$



$frac{1}{2} le A_2 le frac{2}{3}$



$frac{3}{5} le A_3 le frac{2}{3}$



and so on.



So the sequence $A_n$ is squeezed between consecutive convergents of the continued fraction expansion of $phi$. And so $lim_{n to infty} A_n = phi$.






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    3 Answers
    3






    active

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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

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    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    13
    down vote



    accepted










    By the substitution $t=sqrt x$,
    $$A_n=int^1_0f_n(t^2)(2tdt)$$



    $f_n(t^2)$ is of the form
    $$f_n(t^2)=frac{a_n+b_nt}{c_n+d_nt}$$



    We have the recurrence relation
    $$a_{n+1}=c_n$$
    $$b_{n+1}=d_n$$
    $$c_{n+1}=a_n+c_n$$
    $$d_{n+1}=b_n+d_n$$



    Or
    $$c_{n+1}=c_n+c_{n-1}$$
    $$d_{n+1}=d_n+d_{n-1}$$



    which are the Fibonacci recurrence with initial conditions
    $$c_0=1, c_1=1$$
    $$d_0=0, d_1=1$$



    I think you can now proceed.



    Also, the general term of Fibonacci sequence $0,1,1,cdots$ is
    $$frac{phi^n-overlinephi^n}{sqrt5}$$ where $phi=frac{1+sqrt 5}2$.






    share|cite|improve this answer



















    • 8




      It is very nice, but I believe this is a hard question to ask in a midterm for beginners. I dont think there is a more elementary solution, correct?
      – Jimmy Sabater
      16 hours ago















    up vote
    13
    down vote



    accepted










    By the substitution $t=sqrt x$,
    $$A_n=int^1_0f_n(t^2)(2tdt)$$



    $f_n(t^2)$ is of the form
    $$f_n(t^2)=frac{a_n+b_nt}{c_n+d_nt}$$



    We have the recurrence relation
    $$a_{n+1}=c_n$$
    $$b_{n+1}=d_n$$
    $$c_{n+1}=a_n+c_n$$
    $$d_{n+1}=b_n+d_n$$



    Or
    $$c_{n+1}=c_n+c_{n-1}$$
    $$d_{n+1}=d_n+d_{n-1}$$



    which are the Fibonacci recurrence with initial conditions
    $$c_0=1, c_1=1$$
    $$d_0=0, d_1=1$$



    I think you can now proceed.



    Also, the general term of Fibonacci sequence $0,1,1,cdots$ is
    $$frac{phi^n-overlinephi^n}{sqrt5}$$ where $phi=frac{1+sqrt 5}2$.






    share|cite|improve this answer



















    • 8




      It is very nice, but I believe this is a hard question to ask in a midterm for beginners. I dont think there is a more elementary solution, correct?
      – Jimmy Sabater
      16 hours ago













    up vote
    13
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    13
    down vote



    accepted






    By the substitution $t=sqrt x$,
    $$A_n=int^1_0f_n(t^2)(2tdt)$$



    $f_n(t^2)$ is of the form
    $$f_n(t^2)=frac{a_n+b_nt}{c_n+d_nt}$$



    We have the recurrence relation
    $$a_{n+1}=c_n$$
    $$b_{n+1}=d_n$$
    $$c_{n+1}=a_n+c_n$$
    $$d_{n+1}=b_n+d_n$$



    Or
    $$c_{n+1}=c_n+c_{n-1}$$
    $$d_{n+1}=d_n+d_{n-1}$$



    which are the Fibonacci recurrence with initial conditions
    $$c_0=1, c_1=1$$
    $$d_0=0, d_1=1$$



    I think you can now proceed.



    Also, the general term of Fibonacci sequence $0,1,1,cdots$ is
    $$frac{phi^n-overlinephi^n}{sqrt5}$$ where $phi=frac{1+sqrt 5}2$.






    share|cite|improve this answer














    By the substitution $t=sqrt x$,
    $$A_n=int^1_0f_n(t^2)(2tdt)$$



    $f_n(t^2)$ is of the form
    $$f_n(t^2)=frac{a_n+b_nt}{c_n+d_nt}$$



    We have the recurrence relation
    $$a_{n+1}=c_n$$
    $$b_{n+1}=d_n$$
    $$c_{n+1}=a_n+c_n$$
    $$d_{n+1}=b_n+d_n$$



    Or
    $$c_{n+1}=c_n+c_{n-1}$$
    $$d_{n+1}=d_n+d_{n-1}$$



    which are the Fibonacci recurrence with initial conditions
    $$c_0=1, c_1=1$$
    $$d_0=0, d_1=1$$



    I think you can now proceed.



    Also, the general term of Fibonacci sequence $0,1,1,cdots$ is
    $$frac{phi^n-overlinephi^n}{sqrt5}$$ where $phi=frac{1+sqrt 5}2$.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited 16 hours ago

























    answered 16 hours ago









    Szeto

    5,9442726




    5,9442726








    • 8




      It is very nice, but I believe this is a hard question to ask in a midterm for beginners. I dont think there is a more elementary solution, correct?
      – Jimmy Sabater
      16 hours ago














    • 8




      It is very nice, but I believe this is a hard question to ask in a midterm for beginners. I dont think there is a more elementary solution, correct?
      – Jimmy Sabater
      16 hours ago








    8




    8




    It is very nice, but I believe this is a hard question to ask in a midterm for beginners. I dont think there is a more elementary solution, correct?
    – Jimmy Sabater
    16 hours ago




    It is very nice, but I believe this is a hard question to ask in a midterm for beginners. I dont think there is a more elementary solution, correct?
    – Jimmy Sabater
    16 hours ago










    up vote
    15
    down vote













    If I were taking that exam, I'd speculate covergence and write the integrand for $A_infty$ as
    $$ S_infty(x) = frac{1}{ 1 + frac{1}{1+frac{1}{1+frac{1}{ddots} }}} = frac{1}{1+S_infty(x)}$$
    Solve the resulting quadratic for $S_infty^2(x) + S_infty(x) -1 = 0$ for $S_infty(x)=frac{-1+sqrt{5}}{2}$. Then we immediately have $A_infty = S_infty$.



    Then, I'd sit there and wonder what they intended for me to actually show on a freshman calculus exam.






    share|cite|improve this answer

















    • 2




      Well, this is already mentioned in my comment on the OP. I don’t see the point to repost it as an answer. Moreover, this answer does not mention the switching of integral and limit, which is highly non-trivial. Poorly written.
      – Szeto
      14 hours ago








    • 15




      @Szeto Comments to the question should be left to improve the question, not to answer it. Comments may also be deleted if they do not serve this purpose. You should have incorporated your remarks into an/your answer.
      – Dubu
      14 hours ago






    • 9




      @Szeto Are you suggesting that I copied your comment? Because I didn't pay attention to it. This answer is simply what would first cross my mind in a test-taking scenario. Your comment has strong points in it, and I encourage you to turn it into an answer.
      – zahbaz
      13 hours ago










    • @zahbaz The may also have "intended" you to show that the limit actually exists, which is easy enough to prove.
      – alephzero
      10 hours ago










    • @zahbaz Is there a particular reason you choose the positive root to the quadratic equation?
      – Jonathan Chiang
      1 hour ago















    up vote
    15
    down vote













    If I were taking that exam, I'd speculate covergence and write the integrand for $A_infty$ as
    $$ S_infty(x) = frac{1}{ 1 + frac{1}{1+frac{1}{1+frac{1}{ddots} }}} = frac{1}{1+S_infty(x)}$$
    Solve the resulting quadratic for $S_infty^2(x) + S_infty(x) -1 = 0$ for $S_infty(x)=frac{-1+sqrt{5}}{2}$. Then we immediately have $A_infty = S_infty$.



    Then, I'd sit there and wonder what they intended for me to actually show on a freshman calculus exam.






    share|cite|improve this answer

















    • 2




      Well, this is already mentioned in my comment on the OP. I don’t see the point to repost it as an answer. Moreover, this answer does not mention the switching of integral and limit, which is highly non-trivial. Poorly written.
      – Szeto
      14 hours ago








    • 15




      @Szeto Comments to the question should be left to improve the question, not to answer it. Comments may also be deleted if they do not serve this purpose. You should have incorporated your remarks into an/your answer.
      – Dubu
      14 hours ago






    • 9




      @Szeto Are you suggesting that I copied your comment? Because I didn't pay attention to it. This answer is simply what would first cross my mind in a test-taking scenario. Your comment has strong points in it, and I encourage you to turn it into an answer.
      – zahbaz
      13 hours ago










    • @zahbaz The may also have "intended" you to show that the limit actually exists, which is easy enough to prove.
      – alephzero
      10 hours ago










    • @zahbaz Is there a particular reason you choose the positive root to the quadratic equation?
      – Jonathan Chiang
      1 hour ago













    up vote
    15
    down vote










    up vote
    15
    down vote









    If I were taking that exam, I'd speculate covergence and write the integrand for $A_infty$ as
    $$ S_infty(x) = frac{1}{ 1 + frac{1}{1+frac{1}{1+frac{1}{ddots} }}} = frac{1}{1+S_infty(x)}$$
    Solve the resulting quadratic for $S_infty^2(x) + S_infty(x) -1 = 0$ for $S_infty(x)=frac{-1+sqrt{5}}{2}$. Then we immediately have $A_infty = S_infty$.



    Then, I'd sit there and wonder what they intended for me to actually show on a freshman calculus exam.






    share|cite|improve this answer












    If I were taking that exam, I'd speculate covergence and write the integrand for $A_infty$ as
    $$ S_infty(x) = frac{1}{ 1 + frac{1}{1+frac{1}{1+frac{1}{ddots} }}} = frac{1}{1+S_infty(x)}$$
    Solve the resulting quadratic for $S_infty^2(x) + S_infty(x) -1 = 0$ for $S_infty(x)=frac{-1+sqrt{5}}{2}$. Then we immediately have $A_infty = S_infty$.



    Then, I'd sit there and wonder what they intended for me to actually show on a freshman calculus exam.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered 15 hours ago









    zahbaz

    8,02121837




    8,02121837








    • 2




      Well, this is already mentioned in my comment on the OP. I don’t see the point to repost it as an answer. Moreover, this answer does not mention the switching of integral and limit, which is highly non-trivial. Poorly written.
      – Szeto
      14 hours ago








    • 15




      @Szeto Comments to the question should be left to improve the question, not to answer it. Comments may also be deleted if they do not serve this purpose. You should have incorporated your remarks into an/your answer.
      – Dubu
      14 hours ago






    • 9




      @Szeto Are you suggesting that I copied your comment? Because I didn't pay attention to it. This answer is simply what would first cross my mind in a test-taking scenario. Your comment has strong points in it, and I encourage you to turn it into an answer.
      – zahbaz
      13 hours ago










    • @zahbaz The may also have "intended" you to show that the limit actually exists, which is easy enough to prove.
      – alephzero
      10 hours ago










    • @zahbaz Is there a particular reason you choose the positive root to the quadratic equation?
      – Jonathan Chiang
      1 hour ago














    • 2




      Well, this is already mentioned in my comment on the OP. I don’t see the point to repost it as an answer. Moreover, this answer does not mention the switching of integral and limit, which is highly non-trivial. Poorly written.
      – Szeto
      14 hours ago








    • 15




      @Szeto Comments to the question should be left to improve the question, not to answer it. Comments may also be deleted if they do not serve this purpose. You should have incorporated your remarks into an/your answer.
      – Dubu
      14 hours ago






    • 9




      @Szeto Are you suggesting that I copied your comment? Because I didn't pay attention to it. This answer is simply what would first cross my mind in a test-taking scenario. Your comment has strong points in it, and I encourage you to turn it into an answer.
      – zahbaz
      13 hours ago










    • @zahbaz The may also have "intended" you to show that the limit actually exists, which is easy enough to prove.
      – alephzero
      10 hours ago










    • @zahbaz Is there a particular reason you choose the positive root to the quadratic equation?
      – Jonathan Chiang
      1 hour ago








    2




    2




    Well, this is already mentioned in my comment on the OP. I don’t see the point to repost it as an answer. Moreover, this answer does not mention the switching of integral and limit, which is highly non-trivial. Poorly written.
    – Szeto
    14 hours ago






    Well, this is already mentioned in my comment on the OP. I don’t see the point to repost it as an answer. Moreover, this answer does not mention the switching of integral and limit, which is highly non-trivial. Poorly written.
    – Szeto
    14 hours ago






    15




    15




    @Szeto Comments to the question should be left to improve the question, not to answer it. Comments may also be deleted if they do not serve this purpose. You should have incorporated your remarks into an/your answer.
    – Dubu
    14 hours ago




    @Szeto Comments to the question should be left to improve the question, not to answer it. Comments may also be deleted if they do not serve this purpose. You should have incorporated your remarks into an/your answer.
    – Dubu
    14 hours ago




    9




    9




    @Szeto Are you suggesting that I copied your comment? Because I didn't pay attention to it. This answer is simply what would first cross my mind in a test-taking scenario. Your comment has strong points in it, and I encourage you to turn it into an answer.
    – zahbaz
    13 hours ago




    @Szeto Are you suggesting that I copied your comment? Because I didn't pay attention to it. This answer is simply what would first cross my mind in a test-taking scenario. Your comment has strong points in it, and I encourage you to turn it into an answer.
    – zahbaz
    13 hours ago












    @zahbaz The may also have "intended" you to show that the limit actually exists, which is easy enough to prove.
    – alephzero
    10 hours ago




    @zahbaz The may also have "intended" you to show that the limit actually exists, which is easy enough to prove.
    – alephzero
    10 hours ago












    @zahbaz Is there a particular reason you choose the positive root to the quadratic equation?
    – Jonathan Chiang
    1 hour ago




    @zahbaz Is there a particular reason you choose the positive root to the quadratic equation?
    – Jonathan Chiang
    1 hour ago










    up vote
    3
    down vote













    Let $A_n = intlimits_0^1 f_n(x) dx$. First show that each $f_n$ is a monotonically increasing or decreasing function in the range $[0,1]$, and hence $A_n$ lies between $f_n(0)$ and $f_n(1)$. Then note that



    $f_n(0) = 1, frac{1}{2}, frac{2}{3}, frac{3}{5}, dots$



    are the convergents of the continued fraction expansion of $phi$, and $f_n(1) = f_{n+1}(0)$. So we have



    $frac{1}{2} le A_1 le 1$



    $frac{1}{2} le A_2 le frac{2}{3}$



    $frac{3}{5} le A_3 le frac{2}{3}$



    and so on.



    So the sequence $A_n$ is squeezed between consecutive convergents of the continued fraction expansion of $phi$. And so $lim_{n to infty} A_n = phi$.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      3
      down vote













      Let $A_n = intlimits_0^1 f_n(x) dx$. First show that each $f_n$ is a monotonically increasing or decreasing function in the range $[0,1]$, and hence $A_n$ lies between $f_n(0)$ and $f_n(1)$. Then note that



      $f_n(0) = 1, frac{1}{2}, frac{2}{3}, frac{3}{5}, dots$



      are the convergents of the continued fraction expansion of $phi$, and $f_n(1) = f_{n+1}(0)$. So we have



      $frac{1}{2} le A_1 le 1$



      $frac{1}{2} le A_2 le frac{2}{3}$



      $frac{3}{5} le A_3 le frac{2}{3}$



      and so on.



      So the sequence $A_n$ is squeezed between consecutive convergents of the continued fraction expansion of $phi$. And so $lim_{n to infty} A_n = phi$.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        3
        down vote










        up vote
        3
        down vote









        Let $A_n = intlimits_0^1 f_n(x) dx$. First show that each $f_n$ is a monotonically increasing or decreasing function in the range $[0,1]$, and hence $A_n$ lies between $f_n(0)$ and $f_n(1)$. Then note that



        $f_n(0) = 1, frac{1}{2}, frac{2}{3}, frac{3}{5}, dots$



        are the convergents of the continued fraction expansion of $phi$, and $f_n(1) = f_{n+1}(0)$. So we have



        $frac{1}{2} le A_1 le 1$



        $frac{1}{2} le A_2 le frac{2}{3}$



        $frac{3}{5} le A_3 le frac{2}{3}$



        and so on.



        So the sequence $A_n$ is squeezed between consecutive convergents of the continued fraction expansion of $phi$. And so $lim_{n to infty} A_n = phi$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Let $A_n = intlimits_0^1 f_n(x) dx$. First show that each $f_n$ is a monotonically increasing or decreasing function in the range $[0,1]$, and hence $A_n$ lies between $f_n(0)$ and $f_n(1)$. Then note that



        $f_n(0) = 1, frac{1}{2}, frac{2}{3}, frac{3}{5}, dots$



        are the convergents of the continued fraction expansion of $phi$, and $f_n(1) = f_{n+1}(0)$. So we have



        $frac{1}{2} le A_1 le 1$



        $frac{1}{2} le A_2 le frac{2}{3}$



        $frac{3}{5} le A_3 le frac{2}{3}$



        and so on.



        So the sequence $A_n$ is squeezed between consecutive convergents of the continued fraction expansion of $phi$. And so $lim_{n to infty} A_n = phi$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered 12 hours ago









        gandalf61

        7,157523




        7,157523






























             

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