Does $y'=|y|^a$ have any global solutions?











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Assume the differential equation



$$
y'=|y|^a
$$

My intuition tells me that since it involves an absolute value, there might not be any solutions defined everywhere, except for the case $a=0$, where $y(x)=x+c$.



To show this, let
$$
f(y)=|y|^a$$



$bullet,$For $a<0$:



$f$ is not defined for $y=0$ plus it's not bounded



$bullet,$ For $a=0$:
$$y'=1 iff y(x)=x+c, quad x in mathbb{R}$$
$bullet,$ For $a>0$:



$f$ is defined $forall y in mathbb{R}$, but it's not bounded



Can we thus conclude that the only global solution of $y'=|y|^a$ is $y(x)=x+c$?










share|cite|improve this question






















  • What do you mean by a global solution? Should $y(x)$ be defined on $mathbb{R}$?
    – Paul Frost
    yesterday










  • @PaulFrost Exactly
    – Jevaut
    yesterday










  • For $a=1$ you can take $y = e^{x+c}$.
    – Paul Frost
    yesterday










  • You consider $y' = f(y)$ with $f(y) = lvert y rvert^a$. The problem with $f$ is that $f(0)$ is undefined for $a le 0$ (recall that not only $1/0$, but also $0^0$ is undefined). For $a=0$ you may of course interpret your definition as $f(y) equiv 1$ (in which case you get your solution $y(x) = x + c$), but note $f(y) equiv 1$ does not really agree with the original definition. So for $a le 0$ solutions $y(x)$ must satisfy $y(x) ne 0$ for all $x$.
    – Paul Frost
    yesterday












  • So, technically there are no global solutions for $aleq 0$?
    – Jevaut
    yesterday















up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1












Assume the differential equation



$$
y'=|y|^a
$$

My intuition tells me that since it involves an absolute value, there might not be any solutions defined everywhere, except for the case $a=0$, where $y(x)=x+c$.



To show this, let
$$
f(y)=|y|^a$$



$bullet,$For $a<0$:



$f$ is not defined for $y=0$ plus it's not bounded



$bullet,$ For $a=0$:
$$y'=1 iff y(x)=x+c, quad x in mathbb{R}$$
$bullet,$ For $a>0$:



$f$ is defined $forall y in mathbb{R}$, but it's not bounded



Can we thus conclude that the only global solution of $y'=|y|^a$ is $y(x)=x+c$?










share|cite|improve this question






















  • What do you mean by a global solution? Should $y(x)$ be defined on $mathbb{R}$?
    – Paul Frost
    yesterday










  • @PaulFrost Exactly
    – Jevaut
    yesterday










  • For $a=1$ you can take $y = e^{x+c}$.
    – Paul Frost
    yesterday










  • You consider $y' = f(y)$ with $f(y) = lvert y rvert^a$. The problem with $f$ is that $f(0)$ is undefined for $a le 0$ (recall that not only $1/0$, but also $0^0$ is undefined). For $a=0$ you may of course interpret your definition as $f(y) equiv 1$ (in which case you get your solution $y(x) = x + c$), but note $f(y) equiv 1$ does not really agree with the original definition. So for $a le 0$ solutions $y(x)$ must satisfy $y(x) ne 0$ for all $x$.
    – Paul Frost
    yesterday












  • So, technically there are no global solutions for $aleq 0$?
    – Jevaut
    yesterday













up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1






1





Assume the differential equation



$$
y'=|y|^a
$$

My intuition tells me that since it involves an absolute value, there might not be any solutions defined everywhere, except for the case $a=0$, where $y(x)=x+c$.



To show this, let
$$
f(y)=|y|^a$$



$bullet,$For $a<0$:



$f$ is not defined for $y=0$ plus it's not bounded



$bullet,$ For $a=0$:
$$y'=1 iff y(x)=x+c, quad x in mathbb{R}$$
$bullet,$ For $a>0$:



$f$ is defined $forall y in mathbb{R}$, but it's not bounded



Can we thus conclude that the only global solution of $y'=|y|^a$ is $y(x)=x+c$?










share|cite|improve this question













Assume the differential equation



$$
y'=|y|^a
$$

My intuition tells me that since it involves an absolute value, there might not be any solutions defined everywhere, except for the case $a=0$, where $y(x)=x+c$.



To show this, let
$$
f(y)=|y|^a$$



$bullet,$For $a<0$:



$f$ is not defined for $y=0$ plus it's not bounded



$bullet,$ For $a=0$:
$$y'=1 iff y(x)=x+c, quad x in mathbb{R}$$
$bullet,$ For $a>0$:



$f$ is defined $forall y in mathbb{R}$, but it's not bounded



Can we thus conclude that the only global solution of $y'=|y|^a$ is $y(x)=x+c$?







differential-equations dynamical-systems stability-in-odes initial-value-problems






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asked yesterday









Jevaut

5199




5199












  • What do you mean by a global solution? Should $y(x)$ be defined on $mathbb{R}$?
    – Paul Frost
    yesterday










  • @PaulFrost Exactly
    – Jevaut
    yesterday










  • For $a=1$ you can take $y = e^{x+c}$.
    – Paul Frost
    yesterday










  • You consider $y' = f(y)$ with $f(y) = lvert y rvert^a$. The problem with $f$ is that $f(0)$ is undefined for $a le 0$ (recall that not only $1/0$, but also $0^0$ is undefined). For $a=0$ you may of course interpret your definition as $f(y) equiv 1$ (in which case you get your solution $y(x) = x + c$), but note $f(y) equiv 1$ does not really agree with the original definition. So for $a le 0$ solutions $y(x)$ must satisfy $y(x) ne 0$ for all $x$.
    – Paul Frost
    yesterday












  • So, technically there are no global solutions for $aleq 0$?
    – Jevaut
    yesterday


















  • What do you mean by a global solution? Should $y(x)$ be defined on $mathbb{R}$?
    – Paul Frost
    yesterday










  • @PaulFrost Exactly
    – Jevaut
    yesterday










  • For $a=1$ you can take $y = e^{x+c}$.
    – Paul Frost
    yesterday










  • You consider $y' = f(y)$ with $f(y) = lvert y rvert^a$. The problem with $f$ is that $f(0)$ is undefined for $a le 0$ (recall that not only $1/0$, but also $0^0$ is undefined). For $a=0$ you may of course interpret your definition as $f(y) equiv 1$ (in which case you get your solution $y(x) = x + c$), but note $f(y) equiv 1$ does not really agree with the original definition. So for $a le 0$ solutions $y(x)$ must satisfy $y(x) ne 0$ for all $x$.
    – Paul Frost
    yesterday












  • So, technically there are no global solutions for $aleq 0$?
    – Jevaut
    yesterday
















What do you mean by a global solution? Should $y(x)$ be defined on $mathbb{R}$?
– Paul Frost
yesterday




What do you mean by a global solution? Should $y(x)$ be defined on $mathbb{R}$?
– Paul Frost
yesterday












@PaulFrost Exactly
– Jevaut
yesterday




@PaulFrost Exactly
– Jevaut
yesterday












For $a=1$ you can take $y = e^{x+c}$.
– Paul Frost
yesterday




For $a=1$ you can take $y = e^{x+c}$.
– Paul Frost
yesterday












You consider $y' = f(y)$ with $f(y) = lvert y rvert^a$. The problem with $f$ is that $f(0)$ is undefined for $a le 0$ (recall that not only $1/0$, but also $0^0$ is undefined). For $a=0$ you may of course interpret your definition as $f(y) equiv 1$ (in which case you get your solution $y(x) = x + c$), but note $f(y) equiv 1$ does not really agree with the original definition. So for $a le 0$ solutions $y(x)$ must satisfy $y(x) ne 0$ for all $x$.
– Paul Frost
yesterday






You consider $y' = f(y)$ with $f(y) = lvert y rvert^a$. The problem with $f$ is that $f(0)$ is undefined for $a le 0$ (recall that not only $1/0$, but also $0^0$ is undefined). For $a=0$ you may of course interpret your definition as $f(y) equiv 1$ (in which case you get your solution $y(x) = x + c$), but note $f(y) equiv 1$ does not really agree with the original definition. So for $a le 0$ solutions $y(x)$ must satisfy $y(x) ne 0$ for all $x$.
– Paul Frost
yesterday














So, technically there are no global solutions for $aleq 0$?
– Jevaut
yesterday




So, technically there are no global solutions for $aleq 0$?
– Jevaut
yesterday










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










I have summarised some of the information that has already been stated and made an attempt to complete the answer.



I believe that your question may be rephrased as follows: given $a in mathbb{R}$ does there exist $y:mathbb{R}longrightarrowmathbb{R}$ such that $(Dy)(t) = |y(t)|^a$ (1) for all $t in mathbb{R}$?



Remark: it is assumed that $0^0$ is not defined.



Consider four cases (the first two cases are not necessary to answer your question, but it is always useful to exhibit closed-form analytic solutions when they exist):



Case I: $a = 1$. If $c in mathbb{R}$, then $y(t)=ce^{mathsf{sgn}(c) t}$ is a solution of (1) on $mathbb{R}$ (this case is not necessary: see Case III).



Case II: $0 < a < 1$. Then $y(t)=sgn(t)(1-a)^{frac{1}{1-a}}(sgn(t)t)^{frac{1}{1-a}}$ is a solution of (1) on $mathbb{R}$ (this case is not necessary: see Case III).



Case III: $a > 1$. Then $y(t) = 0$ is a solution of (1) on $mathbb{R}$ (of course, $y(t) = 0$ is also a solution for $0 < a leq 1$).



Case IV: $a leq 0$. Suppose that $y(t)$ is a solution of (1) on $mathbb{R}$. Then, $y(t)neq 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Given that $(Dy)(t)=|y(t)|^a$, $(Dy)(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. However, then $y$ must be an increasing function. Therefore, by differentiability of $y$, either $y(t) < 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$ or $y(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$.



Suppose $y(t) < 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Then $(Dy)(t)=(-y(t))^a$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Thus, the second derivative exists and is given by $(D^2 y)(t)=-a(-y(t))^{2a-1}$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Under assumptions $a leq 0$ and $y(t) < 0$, $ 0 leq (D^2 y)(t)$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Therefore, $y(t)$ is convex on $mathbb{R}$. Thus, $y(t)$ is constant (link). However, $y(t)$ is also an increasing function. Thus, a contradiction is reached and, therefore, $y(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$.



Suppose $y(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Then, consider a function $q(t)$ such that $q(t)=y(-t)$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Thus, $q(t)>0$, Also, $(Dq)(t)=-q(t)^a=-(y(-t))^a$ and $(D^2q)(t)=aq(t)^{2a-1}$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Thus, $(Dq)(t) < 0$ and $(D^2q)(t) leq 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Hence, $q$ is decreasing and concave on $mathbb{R}$. However, in this case, it cannot be bounded below (link). Thus, by contradiction, if $a leq 0$, then (1) does not have any global solutions on $mathbb{R}$.



In conclusion, if $a > 0$, then there always exists at least one global solution of (1). Otherwise, (1) does not have any global solutions.






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  • @Jevaut I provided an update for Case IV. Hopefully, now, the solution is more transparent than it was before.
    – xanonec
    14 hours ago


















up vote
0
down vote













There is no requirement that $f$ be bounded. When $a=1/2$ you can use $y(x)=(x^2/4) mathrm{sgn,} x$, for example and you can also translate $xmapsto x+c$ to get other solutions. Also don't forget Cauchy-Lipschitz fails, so $yequiv0$ is a solution too.






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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
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    active

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    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted










    I have summarised some of the information that has already been stated and made an attempt to complete the answer.



    I believe that your question may be rephrased as follows: given $a in mathbb{R}$ does there exist $y:mathbb{R}longrightarrowmathbb{R}$ such that $(Dy)(t) = |y(t)|^a$ (1) for all $t in mathbb{R}$?



    Remark: it is assumed that $0^0$ is not defined.



    Consider four cases (the first two cases are not necessary to answer your question, but it is always useful to exhibit closed-form analytic solutions when they exist):



    Case I: $a = 1$. If $c in mathbb{R}$, then $y(t)=ce^{mathsf{sgn}(c) t}$ is a solution of (1) on $mathbb{R}$ (this case is not necessary: see Case III).



    Case II: $0 < a < 1$. Then $y(t)=sgn(t)(1-a)^{frac{1}{1-a}}(sgn(t)t)^{frac{1}{1-a}}$ is a solution of (1) on $mathbb{R}$ (this case is not necessary: see Case III).



    Case III: $a > 1$. Then $y(t) = 0$ is a solution of (1) on $mathbb{R}$ (of course, $y(t) = 0$ is also a solution for $0 < a leq 1$).



    Case IV: $a leq 0$. Suppose that $y(t)$ is a solution of (1) on $mathbb{R}$. Then, $y(t)neq 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Given that $(Dy)(t)=|y(t)|^a$, $(Dy)(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. However, then $y$ must be an increasing function. Therefore, by differentiability of $y$, either $y(t) < 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$ or $y(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$.



    Suppose $y(t) < 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Then $(Dy)(t)=(-y(t))^a$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Thus, the second derivative exists and is given by $(D^2 y)(t)=-a(-y(t))^{2a-1}$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Under assumptions $a leq 0$ and $y(t) < 0$, $ 0 leq (D^2 y)(t)$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Therefore, $y(t)$ is convex on $mathbb{R}$. Thus, $y(t)$ is constant (link). However, $y(t)$ is also an increasing function. Thus, a contradiction is reached and, therefore, $y(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$.



    Suppose $y(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Then, consider a function $q(t)$ such that $q(t)=y(-t)$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Thus, $q(t)>0$, Also, $(Dq)(t)=-q(t)^a=-(y(-t))^a$ and $(D^2q)(t)=aq(t)^{2a-1}$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Thus, $(Dq)(t) < 0$ and $(D^2q)(t) leq 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Hence, $q$ is decreasing and concave on $mathbb{R}$. However, in this case, it cannot be bounded below (link). Thus, by contradiction, if $a leq 0$, then (1) does not have any global solutions on $mathbb{R}$.



    In conclusion, if $a > 0$, then there always exists at least one global solution of (1). Otherwise, (1) does not have any global solutions.






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • @Jevaut I provided an update for Case IV. Hopefully, now, the solution is more transparent than it was before.
      – xanonec
      14 hours ago















    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted










    I have summarised some of the information that has already been stated and made an attempt to complete the answer.



    I believe that your question may be rephrased as follows: given $a in mathbb{R}$ does there exist $y:mathbb{R}longrightarrowmathbb{R}$ such that $(Dy)(t) = |y(t)|^a$ (1) for all $t in mathbb{R}$?



    Remark: it is assumed that $0^0$ is not defined.



    Consider four cases (the first two cases are not necessary to answer your question, but it is always useful to exhibit closed-form analytic solutions when they exist):



    Case I: $a = 1$. If $c in mathbb{R}$, then $y(t)=ce^{mathsf{sgn}(c) t}$ is a solution of (1) on $mathbb{R}$ (this case is not necessary: see Case III).



    Case II: $0 < a < 1$. Then $y(t)=sgn(t)(1-a)^{frac{1}{1-a}}(sgn(t)t)^{frac{1}{1-a}}$ is a solution of (1) on $mathbb{R}$ (this case is not necessary: see Case III).



    Case III: $a > 1$. Then $y(t) = 0$ is a solution of (1) on $mathbb{R}$ (of course, $y(t) = 0$ is also a solution for $0 < a leq 1$).



    Case IV: $a leq 0$. Suppose that $y(t)$ is a solution of (1) on $mathbb{R}$. Then, $y(t)neq 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Given that $(Dy)(t)=|y(t)|^a$, $(Dy)(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. However, then $y$ must be an increasing function. Therefore, by differentiability of $y$, either $y(t) < 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$ or $y(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$.



    Suppose $y(t) < 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Then $(Dy)(t)=(-y(t))^a$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Thus, the second derivative exists and is given by $(D^2 y)(t)=-a(-y(t))^{2a-1}$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Under assumptions $a leq 0$ and $y(t) < 0$, $ 0 leq (D^2 y)(t)$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Therefore, $y(t)$ is convex on $mathbb{R}$. Thus, $y(t)$ is constant (link). However, $y(t)$ is also an increasing function. Thus, a contradiction is reached and, therefore, $y(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$.



    Suppose $y(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Then, consider a function $q(t)$ such that $q(t)=y(-t)$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Thus, $q(t)>0$, Also, $(Dq)(t)=-q(t)^a=-(y(-t))^a$ and $(D^2q)(t)=aq(t)^{2a-1}$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Thus, $(Dq)(t) < 0$ and $(D^2q)(t) leq 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Hence, $q$ is decreasing and concave on $mathbb{R}$. However, in this case, it cannot be bounded below (link). Thus, by contradiction, if $a leq 0$, then (1) does not have any global solutions on $mathbb{R}$.



    In conclusion, if $a > 0$, then there always exists at least one global solution of (1). Otherwise, (1) does not have any global solutions.






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • @Jevaut I provided an update for Case IV. Hopefully, now, the solution is more transparent than it was before.
      – xanonec
      14 hours ago













    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted






    I have summarised some of the information that has already been stated and made an attempt to complete the answer.



    I believe that your question may be rephrased as follows: given $a in mathbb{R}$ does there exist $y:mathbb{R}longrightarrowmathbb{R}$ such that $(Dy)(t) = |y(t)|^a$ (1) for all $t in mathbb{R}$?



    Remark: it is assumed that $0^0$ is not defined.



    Consider four cases (the first two cases are not necessary to answer your question, but it is always useful to exhibit closed-form analytic solutions when they exist):



    Case I: $a = 1$. If $c in mathbb{R}$, then $y(t)=ce^{mathsf{sgn}(c) t}$ is a solution of (1) on $mathbb{R}$ (this case is not necessary: see Case III).



    Case II: $0 < a < 1$. Then $y(t)=sgn(t)(1-a)^{frac{1}{1-a}}(sgn(t)t)^{frac{1}{1-a}}$ is a solution of (1) on $mathbb{R}$ (this case is not necessary: see Case III).



    Case III: $a > 1$. Then $y(t) = 0$ is a solution of (1) on $mathbb{R}$ (of course, $y(t) = 0$ is also a solution for $0 < a leq 1$).



    Case IV: $a leq 0$. Suppose that $y(t)$ is a solution of (1) on $mathbb{R}$. Then, $y(t)neq 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Given that $(Dy)(t)=|y(t)|^a$, $(Dy)(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. However, then $y$ must be an increasing function. Therefore, by differentiability of $y$, either $y(t) < 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$ or $y(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$.



    Suppose $y(t) < 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Then $(Dy)(t)=(-y(t))^a$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Thus, the second derivative exists and is given by $(D^2 y)(t)=-a(-y(t))^{2a-1}$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Under assumptions $a leq 0$ and $y(t) < 0$, $ 0 leq (D^2 y)(t)$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Therefore, $y(t)$ is convex on $mathbb{R}$. Thus, $y(t)$ is constant (link). However, $y(t)$ is also an increasing function. Thus, a contradiction is reached and, therefore, $y(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$.



    Suppose $y(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Then, consider a function $q(t)$ such that $q(t)=y(-t)$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Thus, $q(t)>0$, Also, $(Dq)(t)=-q(t)^a=-(y(-t))^a$ and $(D^2q)(t)=aq(t)^{2a-1}$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Thus, $(Dq)(t) < 0$ and $(D^2q)(t) leq 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Hence, $q$ is decreasing and concave on $mathbb{R}$. However, in this case, it cannot be bounded below (link). Thus, by contradiction, if $a leq 0$, then (1) does not have any global solutions on $mathbb{R}$.



    In conclusion, if $a > 0$, then there always exists at least one global solution of (1). Otherwise, (1) does not have any global solutions.






    share|cite|improve this answer














    I have summarised some of the information that has already been stated and made an attempt to complete the answer.



    I believe that your question may be rephrased as follows: given $a in mathbb{R}$ does there exist $y:mathbb{R}longrightarrowmathbb{R}$ such that $(Dy)(t) = |y(t)|^a$ (1) for all $t in mathbb{R}$?



    Remark: it is assumed that $0^0$ is not defined.



    Consider four cases (the first two cases are not necessary to answer your question, but it is always useful to exhibit closed-form analytic solutions when they exist):



    Case I: $a = 1$. If $c in mathbb{R}$, then $y(t)=ce^{mathsf{sgn}(c) t}$ is a solution of (1) on $mathbb{R}$ (this case is not necessary: see Case III).



    Case II: $0 < a < 1$. Then $y(t)=sgn(t)(1-a)^{frac{1}{1-a}}(sgn(t)t)^{frac{1}{1-a}}$ is a solution of (1) on $mathbb{R}$ (this case is not necessary: see Case III).



    Case III: $a > 1$. Then $y(t) = 0$ is a solution of (1) on $mathbb{R}$ (of course, $y(t) = 0$ is also a solution for $0 < a leq 1$).



    Case IV: $a leq 0$. Suppose that $y(t)$ is a solution of (1) on $mathbb{R}$. Then, $y(t)neq 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Given that $(Dy)(t)=|y(t)|^a$, $(Dy)(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. However, then $y$ must be an increasing function. Therefore, by differentiability of $y$, either $y(t) < 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$ or $y(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$.



    Suppose $y(t) < 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Then $(Dy)(t)=(-y(t))^a$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Thus, the second derivative exists and is given by $(D^2 y)(t)=-a(-y(t))^{2a-1}$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Under assumptions $a leq 0$ and $y(t) < 0$, $ 0 leq (D^2 y)(t)$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Therefore, $y(t)$ is convex on $mathbb{R}$. Thus, $y(t)$ is constant (link). However, $y(t)$ is also an increasing function. Thus, a contradiction is reached and, therefore, $y(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$.



    Suppose $y(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Then, consider a function $q(t)$ such that $q(t)=y(-t)$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Thus, $q(t)>0$, Also, $(Dq)(t)=-q(t)^a=-(y(-t))^a$ and $(D^2q)(t)=aq(t)^{2a-1}$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Thus, $(Dq)(t) < 0$ and $(D^2q)(t) leq 0$ for all $t in mathbb{R}$. Hence, $q$ is decreasing and concave on $mathbb{R}$. However, in this case, it cannot be bounded below (link). Thus, by contradiction, if $a leq 0$, then (1) does not have any global solutions on $mathbb{R}$.



    In conclusion, if $a > 0$, then there always exists at least one global solution of (1). Otherwise, (1) does not have any global solutions.







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    edited 17 hours ago

























    answered yesterday









    xanonec

    1586




    1586












    • @Jevaut I provided an update for Case IV. Hopefully, now, the solution is more transparent than it was before.
      – xanonec
      14 hours ago


















    • @Jevaut I provided an update for Case IV. Hopefully, now, the solution is more transparent than it was before.
      – xanonec
      14 hours ago
















    @Jevaut I provided an update for Case IV. Hopefully, now, the solution is more transparent than it was before.
    – xanonec
    14 hours ago




    @Jevaut I provided an update for Case IV. Hopefully, now, the solution is more transparent than it was before.
    – xanonec
    14 hours ago










    up vote
    0
    down vote













    There is no requirement that $f$ be bounded. When $a=1/2$ you can use $y(x)=(x^2/4) mathrm{sgn,} x$, for example and you can also translate $xmapsto x+c$ to get other solutions. Also don't forget Cauchy-Lipschitz fails, so $yequiv0$ is a solution too.






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      There is no requirement that $f$ be bounded. When $a=1/2$ you can use $y(x)=(x^2/4) mathrm{sgn,} x$, for example and you can also translate $xmapsto x+c$ to get other solutions. Also don't forget Cauchy-Lipschitz fails, so $yequiv0$ is a solution too.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        0
        down vote










        up vote
        0
        down vote









        There is no requirement that $f$ be bounded. When $a=1/2$ you can use $y(x)=(x^2/4) mathrm{sgn,} x$, for example and you can also translate $xmapsto x+c$ to get other solutions. Also don't forget Cauchy-Lipschitz fails, so $yequiv0$ is a solution too.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        There is no requirement that $f$ be bounded. When $a=1/2$ you can use $y(x)=(x^2/4) mathrm{sgn,} x$, for example and you can also translate $xmapsto x+c$ to get other solutions. Also don't forget Cauchy-Lipschitz fails, so $yequiv0$ is a solution too.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited yesterday

























        answered yesterday









        Richard Martin

        1,3438




        1,3438






























             

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