Let $f$ be a continuous monotone function. Show that $f$ must be absolutely continuous on [0,1]












1












$begingroup$


Let $f:[0,1]tomathbb{R}$ be a continuous monotone function such that $f$ is differentiable everywhere on (0,1) and $f'(x)$ is continuous on $(0,1)$. Show that $f$ must be absolutely continuous on $[0,1]$
and construct a counter example for the case without the "monotone" condition.



My attempt:



$f'(x)$ exists for all $x$ in $(0,1)$ anld continuous on (0,1), then $f'(x)$ is integrable on (0,1) and



$$f(x) = int_{0}^{x}f'(x) + f(0),forall x in [0,1]$$



Since $f$ is an indefinite integral on [0,1] hence $f$ is absolutely continuous.



I want a different approach with the direct proof using the definition and not using so many theorems.



for the counterexample I have:



$f(x) = xsin(1/x)$ and we must show that $f$ is not of bounded variation.










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    1












    $begingroup$


    Let $f:[0,1]tomathbb{R}$ be a continuous monotone function such that $f$ is differentiable everywhere on (0,1) and $f'(x)$ is continuous on $(0,1)$. Show that $f$ must be absolutely continuous on $[0,1]$
    and construct a counter example for the case without the "monotone" condition.



    My attempt:



    $f'(x)$ exists for all $x$ in $(0,1)$ anld continuous on (0,1), then $f'(x)$ is integrable on (0,1) and



    $$f(x) = int_{0}^{x}f'(x) + f(0),forall x in [0,1]$$



    Since $f$ is an indefinite integral on [0,1] hence $f$ is absolutely continuous.



    I want a different approach with the direct proof using the definition and not using so many theorems.



    for the counterexample I have:



    $f(x) = xsin(1/x)$ and we must show that $f$ is not of bounded variation.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      Let $f:[0,1]tomathbb{R}$ be a continuous monotone function such that $f$ is differentiable everywhere on (0,1) and $f'(x)$ is continuous on $(0,1)$. Show that $f$ must be absolutely continuous on $[0,1]$
      and construct a counter example for the case without the "monotone" condition.



      My attempt:



      $f'(x)$ exists for all $x$ in $(0,1)$ anld continuous on (0,1), then $f'(x)$ is integrable on (0,1) and



      $$f(x) = int_{0}^{x}f'(x) + f(0),forall x in [0,1]$$



      Since $f$ is an indefinite integral on [0,1] hence $f$ is absolutely continuous.



      I want a different approach with the direct proof using the definition and not using so many theorems.



      for the counterexample I have:



      $f(x) = xsin(1/x)$ and we must show that $f$ is not of bounded variation.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $f:[0,1]tomathbb{R}$ be a continuous monotone function such that $f$ is differentiable everywhere on (0,1) and $f'(x)$ is continuous on $(0,1)$. Show that $f$ must be absolutely continuous on $[0,1]$
      and construct a counter example for the case without the "monotone" condition.



      My attempt:



      $f'(x)$ exists for all $x$ in $(0,1)$ anld continuous on (0,1), then $f'(x)$ is integrable on (0,1) and



      $$f(x) = int_{0}^{x}f'(x) + f(0),forall x in [0,1]$$



      Since $f$ is an indefinite integral on [0,1] hence $f$ is absolutely continuous.



      I want a different approach with the direct proof using the definition and not using so many theorems.



      for the counterexample I have:



      $f(x) = xsin(1/x)$ and we must show that $f$ is not of bounded variation.







      measure-theory lebesgue-integral monotone-functions absolute-continuity






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      share|cite|improve this question











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      asked Jan 7 at 23:10









      Richard ClareRichard Clare

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          $begingroup$

          Your argument for the first part is not correct. You did not use monotonicity. Assume that $f$ is monotonically increasing. Note that $f' geq 0$ on $(0,1)$. We can write $f(x)=f(frac 1 2)+int_{1/2} ^{x} f'(t), dt$ for $x<frac 1 2 <1$. Since LHS tends to the finite limit $f(1)$ as $ x to 1$ it follows that $int_{1/2}^{1} |f'(t)|, dt=int_{1/2}^{1} f'(t), dt <infty$. Similarly, $int_0^{1/2} |f'(t)|, dt <infty$. This proves that $f'$ is integrable. Now it is easy to see that $f(x)=f(0)+int_0^{x} f'(t), dt$ for all $x in [0,1]$ from which absolute continuity follows.



          For the second part consider the intervals $(frac 1 {frac {(2n+1)pi} 2},frac 1 {npi})$ and apply definition of absolute continuity.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Why you choose 1/2 ? and why not applying that directly to [0,x] ?
            $endgroup$
            – Richard Clare
            Jan 7 at 23:36










          • $begingroup$
            The equation $f(x) =int_0^{x} f'(t), dt$ cannot be justified without monotonicity. In fact we don't even know that this integral exists. @RichardClare
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 7 at 23:38










          • $begingroup$
            Hey, I think we should have that $f(x) + f(1/2) = int_{1/2}^{x}f'(t)dt$ ???
            $endgroup$
            – Richard Clare
            Jan 9 at 21:31












          • $begingroup$
            @RichardClare I have made some corrections in my answer.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 9 at 23:12











          Your Answer





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          1 Answer
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          active

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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          active

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          active

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          3












          $begingroup$

          Your argument for the first part is not correct. You did not use monotonicity. Assume that $f$ is monotonically increasing. Note that $f' geq 0$ on $(0,1)$. We can write $f(x)=f(frac 1 2)+int_{1/2} ^{x} f'(t), dt$ for $x<frac 1 2 <1$. Since LHS tends to the finite limit $f(1)$ as $ x to 1$ it follows that $int_{1/2}^{1} |f'(t)|, dt=int_{1/2}^{1} f'(t), dt <infty$. Similarly, $int_0^{1/2} |f'(t)|, dt <infty$. This proves that $f'$ is integrable. Now it is easy to see that $f(x)=f(0)+int_0^{x} f'(t), dt$ for all $x in [0,1]$ from which absolute continuity follows.



          For the second part consider the intervals $(frac 1 {frac {(2n+1)pi} 2},frac 1 {npi})$ and apply definition of absolute continuity.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Why you choose 1/2 ? and why not applying that directly to [0,x] ?
            $endgroup$
            – Richard Clare
            Jan 7 at 23:36










          • $begingroup$
            The equation $f(x) =int_0^{x} f'(t), dt$ cannot be justified without monotonicity. In fact we don't even know that this integral exists. @RichardClare
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 7 at 23:38










          • $begingroup$
            Hey, I think we should have that $f(x) + f(1/2) = int_{1/2}^{x}f'(t)dt$ ???
            $endgroup$
            – Richard Clare
            Jan 9 at 21:31












          • $begingroup$
            @RichardClare I have made some corrections in my answer.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 9 at 23:12
















          3












          $begingroup$

          Your argument for the first part is not correct. You did not use monotonicity. Assume that $f$ is monotonically increasing. Note that $f' geq 0$ on $(0,1)$. We can write $f(x)=f(frac 1 2)+int_{1/2} ^{x} f'(t), dt$ for $x<frac 1 2 <1$. Since LHS tends to the finite limit $f(1)$ as $ x to 1$ it follows that $int_{1/2}^{1} |f'(t)|, dt=int_{1/2}^{1} f'(t), dt <infty$. Similarly, $int_0^{1/2} |f'(t)|, dt <infty$. This proves that $f'$ is integrable. Now it is easy to see that $f(x)=f(0)+int_0^{x} f'(t), dt$ for all $x in [0,1]$ from which absolute continuity follows.



          For the second part consider the intervals $(frac 1 {frac {(2n+1)pi} 2},frac 1 {npi})$ and apply definition of absolute continuity.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Why you choose 1/2 ? and why not applying that directly to [0,x] ?
            $endgroup$
            – Richard Clare
            Jan 7 at 23:36










          • $begingroup$
            The equation $f(x) =int_0^{x} f'(t), dt$ cannot be justified without monotonicity. In fact we don't even know that this integral exists. @RichardClare
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 7 at 23:38










          • $begingroup$
            Hey, I think we should have that $f(x) + f(1/2) = int_{1/2}^{x}f'(t)dt$ ???
            $endgroup$
            – Richard Clare
            Jan 9 at 21:31












          • $begingroup$
            @RichardClare I have made some corrections in my answer.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 9 at 23:12














          3












          3








          3





          $begingroup$

          Your argument for the first part is not correct. You did not use monotonicity. Assume that $f$ is monotonically increasing. Note that $f' geq 0$ on $(0,1)$. We can write $f(x)=f(frac 1 2)+int_{1/2} ^{x} f'(t), dt$ for $x<frac 1 2 <1$. Since LHS tends to the finite limit $f(1)$ as $ x to 1$ it follows that $int_{1/2}^{1} |f'(t)|, dt=int_{1/2}^{1} f'(t), dt <infty$. Similarly, $int_0^{1/2} |f'(t)|, dt <infty$. This proves that $f'$ is integrable. Now it is easy to see that $f(x)=f(0)+int_0^{x} f'(t), dt$ for all $x in [0,1]$ from which absolute continuity follows.



          For the second part consider the intervals $(frac 1 {frac {(2n+1)pi} 2},frac 1 {npi})$ and apply definition of absolute continuity.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Your argument for the first part is not correct. You did not use monotonicity. Assume that $f$ is monotonically increasing. Note that $f' geq 0$ on $(0,1)$. We can write $f(x)=f(frac 1 2)+int_{1/2} ^{x} f'(t), dt$ for $x<frac 1 2 <1$. Since LHS tends to the finite limit $f(1)$ as $ x to 1$ it follows that $int_{1/2}^{1} |f'(t)|, dt=int_{1/2}^{1} f'(t), dt <infty$. Similarly, $int_0^{1/2} |f'(t)|, dt <infty$. This proves that $f'$ is integrable. Now it is easy to see that $f(x)=f(0)+int_0^{x} f'(t), dt$ for all $x in [0,1]$ from which absolute continuity follows.



          For the second part consider the intervals $(frac 1 {frac {(2n+1)pi} 2},frac 1 {npi})$ and apply definition of absolute continuity.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jan 9 at 23:11

























          answered Jan 7 at 23:29









          Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

          56.6k42159




          56.6k42159












          • $begingroup$
            Why you choose 1/2 ? and why not applying that directly to [0,x] ?
            $endgroup$
            – Richard Clare
            Jan 7 at 23:36










          • $begingroup$
            The equation $f(x) =int_0^{x} f'(t), dt$ cannot be justified without monotonicity. In fact we don't even know that this integral exists. @RichardClare
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 7 at 23:38










          • $begingroup$
            Hey, I think we should have that $f(x) + f(1/2) = int_{1/2}^{x}f'(t)dt$ ???
            $endgroup$
            – Richard Clare
            Jan 9 at 21:31












          • $begingroup$
            @RichardClare I have made some corrections in my answer.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 9 at 23:12


















          • $begingroup$
            Why you choose 1/2 ? and why not applying that directly to [0,x] ?
            $endgroup$
            – Richard Clare
            Jan 7 at 23:36










          • $begingroup$
            The equation $f(x) =int_0^{x} f'(t), dt$ cannot be justified without monotonicity. In fact we don't even know that this integral exists. @RichardClare
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 7 at 23:38










          • $begingroup$
            Hey, I think we should have that $f(x) + f(1/2) = int_{1/2}^{x}f'(t)dt$ ???
            $endgroup$
            – Richard Clare
            Jan 9 at 21:31












          • $begingroup$
            @RichardClare I have made some corrections in my answer.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 9 at 23:12
















          $begingroup$
          Why you choose 1/2 ? and why not applying that directly to [0,x] ?
          $endgroup$
          – Richard Clare
          Jan 7 at 23:36




          $begingroup$
          Why you choose 1/2 ? and why not applying that directly to [0,x] ?
          $endgroup$
          – Richard Clare
          Jan 7 at 23:36












          $begingroup$
          The equation $f(x) =int_0^{x} f'(t), dt$ cannot be justified without monotonicity. In fact we don't even know that this integral exists. @RichardClare
          $endgroup$
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Jan 7 at 23:38




          $begingroup$
          The equation $f(x) =int_0^{x} f'(t), dt$ cannot be justified without monotonicity. In fact we don't even know that this integral exists. @RichardClare
          $endgroup$
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Jan 7 at 23:38












          $begingroup$
          Hey, I think we should have that $f(x) + f(1/2) = int_{1/2}^{x}f'(t)dt$ ???
          $endgroup$
          – Richard Clare
          Jan 9 at 21:31






          $begingroup$
          Hey, I think we should have that $f(x) + f(1/2) = int_{1/2}^{x}f'(t)dt$ ???
          $endgroup$
          – Richard Clare
          Jan 9 at 21:31














          $begingroup$
          @RichardClare I have made some corrections in my answer.
          $endgroup$
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Jan 9 at 23:12




          $begingroup$
          @RichardClare I have made some corrections in my answer.
          $endgroup$
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Jan 9 at 23:12


















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