Is p(x)dx equal to dp(x)?












1












$begingroup$


I'm confused with the definition of the expectation operator.
Assume a random variable $X$ having a probability distribution $p(x)$. Then the expected value of $X$ can be computed as $int xp(x)dx$.



It is noted in 1 that, given a probability space $(Omega, Sigma,
P)$ as defined in 2, the general definition of the expected value is



$int_{Omega} X dP = int_{Omega} X(w)P(dw) $



where $P$ is the probability measure returning an events probability in $Sigma$. Is this probability measure the same as the distribution $p(x)$. Additionaly. what does $X(w)$ and $P(dw)$ mean?



Also, the Eq. 1 in http://leon.bottou.org/publications/pdf/online-1998.pdf states that
$E[f(x)] = int f(x)p(x) = int f(x)dp(x)$, is this correct or simply there is a notation error?










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Yes, that's true.
    $endgroup$
    – user207710
    Feb 26 '15 at 16:40






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thanks, but if p(x)dx = dp(x), then dp(x)/dx = p(x) which is not true, no?
    $endgroup$
    – Adam I.
    Feb 26 '15 at 16:43










  • $begingroup$
    Apologies, that should be $p'(x)dx$.
    $endgroup$
    – user207710
    Feb 26 '15 at 16:44






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    If the measure $P$ is absolutely continuous with respect to the Lebesgue measure then you can write $P(A) = int_A f(x) dx$ for some $f$. But not all measures can be written this way. Take $P=delta_0$, for example. The notation $int X(omega) P(domega)$ is often written as $int X(omega) d P(omega)$. Think of the $P(domega)$ as the probability of an 'infinitesimal' slice :-).
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Feb 26 '15 at 16:46








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This is a older notation. Nowadays, you write $int_Omega X(omega), dP(omega)$, not $int_Omega X(omega), P(domega)$,
    $endgroup$
    – ncmathsadist
    Feb 26 '15 at 17:09
















1












$begingroup$


I'm confused with the definition of the expectation operator.
Assume a random variable $X$ having a probability distribution $p(x)$. Then the expected value of $X$ can be computed as $int xp(x)dx$.



It is noted in 1 that, given a probability space $(Omega, Sigma,
P)$ as defined in 2, the general definition of the expected value is



$int_{Omega} X dP = int_{Omega} X(w)P(dw) $



where $P$ is the probability measure returning an events probability in $Sigma$. Is this probability measure the same as the distribution $p(x)$. Additionaly. what does $X(w)$ and $P(dw)$ mean?



Also, the Eq. 1 in http://leon.bottou.org/publications/pdf/online-1998.pdf states that
$E[f(x)] = int f(x)p(x) = int f(x)dp(x)$, is this correct or simply there is a notation error?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Yes, that's true.
    $endgroup$
    – user207710
    Feb 26 '15 at 16:40






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thanks, but if p(x)dx = dp(x), then dp(x)/dx = p(x) which is not true, no?
    $endgroup$
    – Adam I.
    Feb 26 '15 at 16:43










  • $begingroup$
    Apologies, that should be $p'(x)dx$.
    $endgroup$
    – user207710
    Feb 26 '15 at 16:44






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    If the measure $P$ is absolutely continuous with respect to the Lebesgue measure then you can write $P(A) = int_A f(x) dx$ for some $f$. But not all measures can be written this way. Take $P=delta_0$, for example. The notation $int X(omega) P(domega)$ is often written as $int X(omega) d P(omega)$. Think of the $P(domega)$ as the probability of an 'infinitesimal' slice :-).
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Feb 26 '15 at 16:46








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This is a older notation. Nowadays, you write $int_Omega X(omega), dP(omega)$, not $int_Omega X(omega), P(domega)$,
    $endgroup$
    – ncmathsadist
    Feb 26 '15 at 17:09














1












1








1


0



$begingroup$


I'm confused with the definition of the expectation operator.
Assume a random variable $X$ having a probability distribution $p(x)$. Then the expected value of $X$ can be computed as $int xp(x)dx$.



It is noted in 1 that, given a probability space $(Omega, Sigma,
P)$ as defined in 2, the general definition of the expected value is



$int_{Omega} X dP = int_{Omega} X(w)P(dw) $



where $P$ is the probability measure returning an events probability in $Sigma$. Is this probability measure the same as the distribution $p(x)$. Additionaly. what does $X(w)$ and $P(dw)$ mean?



Also, the Eq. 1 in http://leon.bottou.org/publications/pdf/online-1998.pdf states that
$E[f(x)] = int f(x)p(x) = int f(x)dp(x)$, is this correct or simply there is a notation error?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I'm confused with the definition of the expectation operator.
Assume a random variable $X$ having a probability distribution $p(x)$. Then the expected value of $X$ can be computed as $int xp(x)dx$.



It is noted in 1 that, given a probability space $(Omega, Sigma,
P)$ as defined in 2, the general definition of the expected value is



$int_{Omega} X dP = int_{Omega} X(w)P(dw) $



where $P$ is the probability measure returning an events probability in $Sigma$. Is this probability measure the same as the distribution $p(x)$. Additionaly. what does $X(w)$ and $P(dw)$ mean?



Also, the Eq. 1 in http://leon.bottou.org/publications/pdf/online-1998.pdf states that
$E[f(x)] = int f(x)p(x) = int f(x)dp(x)$, is this correct or simply there is a notation error?







probability probability-theory






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Feb 26 '15 at 16:39









Adam I.Adam I.

1369




1369












  • $begingroup$
    Yes, that's true.
    $endgroup$
    – user207710
    Feb 26 '15 at 16:40






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thanks, but if p(x)dx = dp(x), then dp(x)/dx = p(x) which is not true, no?
    $endgroup$
    – Adam I.
    Feb 26 '15 at 16:43










  • $begingroup$
    Apologies, that should be $p'(x)dx$.
    $endgroup$
    – user207710
    Feb 26 '15 at 16:44






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    If the measure $P$ is absolutely continuous with respect to the Lebesgue measure then you can write $P(A) = int_A f(x) dx$ for some $f$. But not all measures can be written this way. Take $P=delta_0$, for example. The notation $int X(omega) P(domega)$ is often written as $int X(omega) d P(omega)$. Think of the $P(domega)$ as the probability of an 'infinitesimal' slice :-).
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Feb 26 '15 at 16:46








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This is a older notation. Nowadays, you write $int_Omega X(omega), dP(omega)$, not $int_Omega X(omega), P(domega)$,
    $endgroup$
    – ncmathsadist
    Feb 26 '15 at 17:09


















  • $begingroup$
    Yes, that's true.
    $endgroup$
    – user207710
    Feb 26 '15 at 16:40






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thanks, but if p(x)dx = dp(x), then dp(x)/dx = p(x) which is not true, no?
    $endgroup$
    – Adam I.
    Feb 26 '15 at 16:43










  • $begingroup$
    Apologies, that should be $p'(x)dx$.
    $endgroup$
    – user207710
    Feb 26 '15 at 16:44






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    If the measure $P$ is absolutely continuous with respect to the Lebesgue measure then you can write $P(A) = int_A f(x) dx$ for some $f$. But not all measures can be written this way. Take $P=delta_0$, for example. The notation $int X(omega) P(domega)$ is often written as $int X(omega) d P(omega)$. Think of the $P(domega)$ as the probability of an 'infinitesimal' slice :-).
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Feb 26 '15 at 16:46








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This is a older notation. Nowadays, you write $int_Omega X(omega), dP(omega)$, not $int_Omega X(omega), P(domega)$,
    $endgroup$
    – ncmathsadist
    Feb 26 '15 at 17:09
















$begingroup$
Yes, that's true.
$endgroup$
– user207710
Feb 26 '15 at 16:40




$begingroup$
Yes, that's true.
$endgroup$
– user207710
Feb 26 '15 at 16:40




1




1




$begingroup$
Thanks, but if p(x)dx = dp(x), then dp(x)/dx = p(x) which is not true, no?
$endgroup$
– Adam I.
Feb 26 '15 at 16:43




$begingroup$
Thanks, but if p(x)dx = dp(x), then dp(x)/dx = p(x) which is not true, no?
$endgroup$
– Adam I.
Feb 26 '15 at 16:43












$begingroup$
Apologies, that should be $p'(x)dx$.
$endgroup$
– user207710
Feb 26 '15 at 16:44




$begingroup$
Apologies, that should be $p'(x)dx$.
$endgroup$
– user207710
Feb 26 '15 at 16:44




4




4




$begingroup$
If the measure $P$ is absolutely continuous with respect to the Lebesgue measure then you can write $P(A) = int_A f(x) dx$ for some $f$. But not all measures can be written this way. Take $P=delta_0$, for example. The notation $int X(omega) P(domega)$ is often written as $int X(omega) d P(omega)$. Think of the $P(domega)$ as the probability of an 'infinitesimal' slice :-).
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Feb 26 '15 at 16:46






$begingroup$
If the measure $P$ is absolutely continuous with respect to the Lebesgue measure then you can write $P(A) = int_A f(x) dx$ for some $f$. But not all measures can be written this way. Take $P=delta_0$, for example. The notation $int X(omega) P(domega)$ is often written as $int X(omega) d P(omega)$. Think of the $P(domega)$ as the probability of an 'infinitesimal' slice :-).
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Feb 26 '15 at 16:46






1




1




$begingroup$
This is a older notation. Nowadays, you write $int_Omega X(omega), dP(omega)$, not $int_Omega X(omega), P(domega)$,
$endgroup$
– ncmathsadist
Feb 26 '15 at 17:09




$begingroup$
This is a older notation. Nowadays, you write $int_Omega X(omega), dP(omega)$, not $int_Omega X(omega), P(domega)$,
$endgroup$
– ncmathsadist
Feb 26 '15 at 17:09










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