Completely positive map is $*$-homomorphism












0












$begingroup$


Suppose $A$ is a $C^*$ algebra and we have a completely positive contractive map $f colon Arightarrow B(H)$ such that $sup_{a,b in A}lVert f(ab)-f(a)f(b)rVert =0$. Can we conclude that $f$ is a $*$-homomorphism?










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    As a small add-up. This will still be true is you change completely positive by completely bounded by a (nontrivial) theorem of Haagerup: Every completely bounded homomorphism is equivalent to a $ast$-homomorphism.
    $endgroup$
    – Adrián González-Pérez
    Jan 14 at 11:33










  • $begingroup$
    What is the definition of C.B.homomorphism?
    $endgroup$
    – mathrookie
    Jan 14 at 19:46










  • $begingroup$
    A multiplicative linear map such that all of its matrix amplifications $id_{M_k} otimes varphi$ are uniformly bounded.
    $endgroup$
    – Adrián González-Pérez
    Jan 15 at 13:07
















0












$begingroup$


Suppose $A$ is a $C^*$ algebra and we have a completely positive contractive map $f colon Arightarrow B(H)$ such that $sup_{a,b in A}lVert f(ab)-f(a)f(b)rVert =0$. Can we conclude that $f$ is a $*$-homomorphism?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    As a small add-up. This will still be true is you change completely positive by completely bounded by a (nontrivial) theorem of Haagerup: Every completely bounded homomorphism is equivalent to a $ast$-homomorphism.
    $endgroup$
    – Adrián González-Pérez
    Jan 14 at 11:33










  • $begingroup$
    What is the definition of C.B.homomorphism?
    $endgroup$
    – mathrookie
    Jan 14 at 19:46










  • $begingroup$
    A multiplicative linear map such that all of its matrix amplifications $id_{M_k} otimes varphi$ are uniformly bounded.
    $endgroup$
    – Adrián González-Pérez
    Jan 15 at 13:07














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Suppose $A$ is a $C^*$ algebra and we have a completely positive contractive map $f colon Arightarrow B(H)$ such that $sup_{a,b in A}lVert f(ab)-f(a)f(b)rVert =0$. Can we conclude that $f$ is a $*$-homomorphism?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Suppose $A$ is a $C^*$ algebra and we have a completely positive contractive map $f colon Arightarrow B(H)$ such that $sup_{a,b in A}lVert f(ab)-f(a)f(b)rVert =0$. Can we conclude that $f$ is a $*$-homomorphism?







operator-theory operator-algebras c-star-algebras






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edited Jan 12 at 13:08







user42761

















asked Jan 11 at 18:18









mathrookiemathrookie

899512




899512












  • $begingroup$
    As a small add-up. This will still be true is you change completely positive by completely bounded by a (nontrivial) theorem of Haagerup: Every completely bounded homomorphism is equivalent to a $ast$-homomorphism.
    $endgroup$
    – Adrián González-Pérez
    Jan 14 at 11:33










  • $begingroup$
    What is the definition of C.B.homomorphism?
    $endgroup$
    – mathrookie
    Jan 14 at 19:46










  • $begingroup$
    A multiplicative linear map such that all of its matrix amplifications $id_{M_k} otimes varphi$ are uniformly bounded.
    $endgroup$
    – Adrián González-Pérez
    Jan 15 at 13:07


















  • $begingroup$
    As a small add-up. This will still be true is you change completely positive by completely bounded by a (nontrivial) theorem of Haagerup: Every completely bounded homomorphism is equivalent to a $ast$-homomorphism.
    $endgroup$
    – Adrián González-Pérez
    Jan 14 at 11:33










  • $begingroup$
    What is the definition of C.B.homomorphism?
    $endgroup$
    – mathrookie
    Jan 14 at 19:46










  • $begingroup$
    A multiplicative linear map such that all of its matrix amplifications $id_{M_k} otimes varphi$ are uniformly bounded.
    $endgroup$
    – Adrián González-Pérez
    Jan 15 at 13:07
















$begingroup$
As a small add-up. This will still be true is you change completely positive by completely bounded by a (nontrivial) theorem of Haagerup: Every completely bounded homomorphism is equivalent to a $ast$-homomorphism.
$endgroup$
– Adrián González-Pérez
Jan 14 at 11:33




$begingroup$
As a small add-up. This will still be true is you change completely positive by completely bounded by a (nontrivial) theorem of Haagerup: Every completely bounded homomorphism is equivalent to a $ast$-homomorphism.
$endgroup$
– Adrián González-Pérez
Jan 14 at 11:33












$begingroup$
What is the definition of C.B.homomorphism?
$endgroup$
– mathrookie
Jan 14 at 19:46




$begingroup$
What is the definition of C.B.homomorphism?
$endgroup$
– mathrookie
Jan 14 at 19:46












$begingroup$
A multiplicative linear map such that all of its matrix amplifications $id_{M_k} otimes varphi$ are uniformly bounded.
$endgroup$
– Adrián González-Pérez
Jan 15 at 13:07




$begingroup$
A multiplicative linear map such that all of its matrix amplifications $id_{M_k} otimes varphi$ are uniformly bounded.
$endgroup$
– Adrián González-Pérez
Jan 15 at 13:07










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

The conditions immediately imply that $f$ is an algebra homomorphism. To show that it preserves adjoints, let $ain A$ be self-adjoint. Then $a=a_+-a_-$, where $a_+,a_-$ are positive elements of $A$. Then $f(a)=f(a_+)-f(a_-)$ is a difference of positive elements (as $f$ is a positive map), hence self-adjoint. If now $bin A$ is arbitrary, write $b=b_1+ib_2$, where $b_1,b_2$ are self-adjoint. Then
$$f(b)^*=(f(b_1)+if(b_2))^*=f(b_1)-if(b_2)=f(b_1-ib_2)=f(b^*),$$
and therefore $f$ is a $*$-homomorphism.



Indeed, the above work proves the following proposition:




Let $A,B$ be $C^*$-algebras, and let $f:Ato B$ be a positive linear map. Then $f$ is $*$-preserving, i.e., $f(a)^*=f(a^*)$ for all $ain A$.







share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    2












    $begingroup$

    Assuming that the sup is take over all $a,bin A$, then the condition $sup_{a,b}|f(ab)-f(a)f(b)|=0$ is exactly the same as $f(ab)=f(a)f(b)$ for all $a,b$. Neither contractive not completely positive are relevant in that case. All you need is $f$ to be linear and preserve adjoints.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      I believe the point of the question was to ask whether or not the conditions imply that $f$ is $*$-preserving.
      $endgroup$
      – Aweygan
      Jan 12 at 2:41






    • 2




      $begingroup$
      A (completely) positive map is $*$-preserving.
      $endgroup$
      – Martin Argerami
      Jan 12 at 2:41











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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
    2






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    active

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    2












    $begingroup$

    The conditions immediately imply that $f$ is an algebra homomorphism. To show that it preserves adjoints, let $ain A$ be self-adjoint. Then $a=a_+-a_-$, where $a_+,a_-$ are positive elements of $A$. Then $f(a)=f(a_+)-f(a_-)$ is a difference of positive elements (as $f$ is a positive map), hence self-adjoint. If now $bin A$ is arbitrary, write $b=b_1+ib_2$, where $b_1,b_2$ are self-adjoint. Then
    $$f(b)^*=(f(b_1)+if(b_2))^*=f(b_1)-if(b_2)=f(b_1-ib_2)=f(b^*),$$
    and therefore $f$ is a $*$-homomorphism.



    Indeed, the above work proves the following proposition:




    Let $A,B$ be $C^*$-algebras, and let $f:Ato B$ be a positive linear map. Then $f$ is $*$-preserving, i.e., $f(a)^*=f(a^*)$ for all $ain A$.







    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      2












      $begingroup$

      The conditions immediately imply that $f$ is an algebra homomorphism. To show that it preserves adjoints, let $ain A$ be self-adjoint. Then $a=a_+-a_-$, where $a_+,a_-$ are positive elements of $A$. Then $f(a)=f(a_+)-f(a_-)$ is a difference of positive elements (as $f$ is a positive map), hence self-adjoint. If now $bin A$ is arbitrary, write $b=b_1+ib_2$, where $b_1,b_2$ are self-adjoint. Then
      $$f(b)^*=(f(b_1)+if(b_2))^*=f(b_1)-if(b_2)=f(b_1-ib_2)=f(b^*),$$
      and therefore $f$ is a $*$-homomorphism.



      Indeed, the above work proves the following proposition:




      Let $A,B$ be $C^*$-algebras, and let $f:Ato B$ be a positive linear map. Then $f$ is $*$-preserving, i.e., $f(a)^*=f(a^*)$ for all $ain A$.







      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        The conditions immediately imply that $f$ is an algebra homomorphism. To show that it preserves adjoints, let $ain A$ be self-adjoint. Then $a=a_+-a_-$, where $a_+,a_-$ are positive elements of $A$. Then $f(a)=f(a_+)-f(a_-)$ is a difference of positive elements (as $f$ is a positive map), hence self-adjoint. If now $bin A$ is arbitrary, write $b=b_1+ib_2$, where $b_1,b_2$ are self-adjoint. Then
        $$f(b)^*=(f(b_1)+if(b_2))^*=f(b_1)-if(b_2)=f(b_1-ib_2)=f(b^*),$$
        and therefore $f$ is a $*$-homomorphism.



        Indeed, the above work proves the following proposition:




        Let $A,B$ be $C^*$-algebras, and let $f:Ato B$ be a positive linear map. Then $f$ is $*$-preserving, i.e., $f(a)^*=f(a^*)$ for all $ain A$.







        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        The conditions immediately imply that $f$ is an algebra homomorphism. To show that it preserves adjoints, let $ain A$ be self-adjoint. Then $a=a_+-a_-$, where $a_+,a_-$ are positive elements of $A$. Then $f(a)=f(a_+)-f(a_-)$ is a difference of positive elements (as $f$ is a positive map), hence self-adjoint. If now $bin A$ is arbitrary, write $b=b_1+ib_2$, where $b_1,b_2$ are self-adjoint. Then
        $$f(b)^*=(f(b_1)+if(b_2))^*=f(b_1)-if(b_2)=f(b_1-ib_2)=f(b^*),$$
        and therefore $f$ is a $*$-homomorphism.



        Indeed, the above work proves the following proposition:




        Let $A,B$ be $C^*$-algebras, and let $f:Ato B$ be a positive linear map. Then $f$ is $*$-preserving, i.e., $f(a)^*=f(a^*)$ for all $ain A$.








        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 12 at 2:38









        AweyganAweygan

        14.2k21441




        14.2k21441























            2












            $begingroup$

            Assuming that the sup is take over all $a,bin A$, then the condition $sup_{a,b}|f(ab)-f(a)f(b)|=0$ is exactly the same as $f(ab)=f(a)f(b)$ for all $a,b$. Neither contractive not completely positive are relevant in that case. All you need is $f$ to be linear and preserve adjoints.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              I believe the point of the question was to ask whether or not the conditions imply that $f$ is $*$-preserving.
              $endgroup$
              – Aweygan
              Jan 12 at 2:41






            • 2




              $begingroup$
              A (completely) positive map is $*$-preserving.
              $endgroup$
              – Martin Argerami
              Jan 12 at 2:41
















            2












            $begingroup$

            Assuming that the sup is take over all $a,bin A$, then the condition $sup_{a,b}|f(ab)-f(a)f(b)|=0$ is exactly the same as $f(ab)=f(a)f(b)$ for all $a,b$. Neither contractive not completely positive are relevant in that case. All you need is $f$ to be linear and preserve adjoints.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              I believe the point of the question was to ask whether or not the conditions imply that $f$ is $*$-preserving.
              $endgroup$
              – Aweygan
              Jan 12 at 2:41






            • 2




              $begingroup$
              A (completely) positive map is $*$-preserving.
              $endgroup$
              – Martin Argerami
              Jan 12 at 2:41














            2












            2








            2





            $begingroup$

            Assuming that the sup is take over all $a,bin A$, then the condition $sup_{a,b}|f(ab)-f(a)f(b)|=0$ is exactly the same as $f(ab)=f(a)f(b)$ for all $a,b$. Neither contractive not completely positive are relevant in that case. All you need is $f$ to be linear and preserve adjoints.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            Assuming that the sup is take over all $a,bin A$, then the condition $sup_{a,b}|f(ab)-f(a)f(b)|=0$ is exactly the same as $f(ab)=f(a)f(b)$ for all $a,b$. Neither contractive not completely positive are relevant in that case. All you need is $f$ to be linear and preserve adjoints.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Jan 12 at 2:23









            Martin ArgeramiMartin Argerami

            127k1182181




            127k1182181












            • $begingroup$
              I believe the point of the question was to ask whether or not the conditions imply that $f$ is $*$-preserving.
              $endgroup$
              – Aweygan
              Jan 12 at 2:41






            • 2




              $begingroup$
              A (completely) positive map is $*$-preserving.
              $endgroup$
              – Martin Argerami
              Jan 12 at 2:41


















            • $begingroup$
              I believe the point of the question was to ask whether or not the conditions imply that $f$ is $*$-preserving.
              $endgroup$
              – Aweygan
              Jan 12 at 2:41






            • 2




              $begingroup$
              A (completely) positive map is $*$-preserving.
              $endgroup$
              – Martin Argerami
              Jan 12 at 2:41
















            $begingroup$
            I believe the point of the question was to ask whether or not the conditions imply that $f$ is $*$-preserving.
            $endgroup$
            – Aweygan
            Jan 12 at 2:41




            $begingroup$
            I believe the point of the question was to ask whether or not the conditions imply that $f$ is $*$-preserving.
            $endgroup$
            – Aweygan
            Jan 12 at 2:41




            2




            2




            $begingroup$
            A (completely) positive map is $*$-preserving.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin Argerami
            Jan 12 at 2:41




            $begingroup$
            A (completely) positive map is $*$-preserving.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin Argerami
            Jan 12 at 2:41


















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