$mathrm{ess, sup}(f)=text{sup}(f)$ for a continuous non negative function $f$












3












$begingroup$


My intuition tells me that the following proposition is true:




Let $f: Omega rightarrow mathbb{R}$ be a measurable function on a measurable set $Omega subseteq mathbb{R}^n$. If $f$ is continuous and non negative then $mathrm{ess, sup}(f)=text{sup}(f)$.




I'm using here the Borel sigma algebras on $Omega$ and $mathbb{R}$ respectively, and the Lebesgue measure $m$ on $Omega$.



My measure theory background is very poor, that being said I tried to give a proof for the case where $Omega$ is compact:



Let $A={a: m({ fgeq a })=0 }$. Therefore $mathrm{ess, sup}(f)= inf A = E$. Let also $M=max f = sup f$ (it exists because $f$ is continuous on a compact set). I will prove $E geq M$, and $E leq M$ (otherwise there would be a contradiction on the defition of $inf A$).





  • $E leq M$: if $a>M$ then ${ fgeq a }=emptyset$, so $m({ fgeq a })=0$, so $a in A$. Therefore $E=inf A leq M$


  • $E geq M$: let $a in A$, and suppose there's $x$ such that $f(x)>a$. By continuity of $f$ there also an open neighbourood $U(x)$ such that for every $yin U(x)$ $f(y)>a$. Therefore $m({ f>a})>0$ and this is impossible, since $m({ fgeq a })=0$ (because $a in A$), $Omega$ has finite measure since it is (closed and) bounded and ${ f<a } $ and ${ f > a }$ are disjoint.


Provided the above reasoning holds I would like to extend from here the conclusion to a generic measurable $Omega$: anybody could give me a hint in this direction? (or show me why the general proposition is wrong?)



Thanks!






Edit



Thanks to everybody for the help. Maybe it could be more interesting to require $Omega$ non empty and connected.











share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $mathrm{ess, sup}$ has three consecutive $s$'s in defiance of the usual rules of spelling. Try using $mathrm{ess, sup}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Umberto P.
    Jan 11 at 16:53












  • $begingroup$
    Does $f: mathbb{R}^n supseteq Omega rightarrow mathbb{R}$ mean $f: Omega rightarrow mathbb{R}$ such that $Omega subseteq mathbb{R}^n$? If so the proposition seems false.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 18:25










  • $begingroup$
    @6005 Yes, can you give me a counterexample? And I would really appreciate some additional hypothesis to make the statement true
    $endgroup$
    – Leonardo
    Jan 11 at 18:29










  • $begingroup$
    @Leonardo I have given an answer with a counterexample, but my counterexample feels too simple so I may have missed something in the question
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 18:30
















3












$begingroup$


My intuition tells me that the following proposition is true:




Let $f: Omega rightarrow mathbb{R}$ be a measurable function on a measurable set $Omega subseteq mathbb{R}^n$. If $f$ is continuous and non negative then $mathrm{ess, sup}(f)=text{sup}(f)$.




I'm using here the Borel sigma algebras on $Omega$ and $mathbb{R}$ respectively, and the Lebesgue measure $m$ on $Omega$.



My measure theory background is very poor, that being said I tried to give a proof for the case where $Omega$ is compact:



Let $A={a: m({ fgeq a })=0 }$. Therefore $mathrm{ess, sup}(f)= inf A = E$. Let also $M=max f = sup f$ (it exists because $f$ is continuous on a compact set). I will prove $E geq M$, and $E leq M$ (otherwise there would be a contradiction on the defition of $inf A$).





  • $E leq M$: if $a>M$ then ${ fgeq a }=emptyset$, so $m({ fgeq a })=0$, so $a in A$. Therefore $E=inf A leq M$


  • $E geq M$: let $a in A$, and suppose there's $x$ such that $f(x)>a$. By continuity of $f$ there also an open neighbourood $U(x)$ such that for every $yin U(x)$ $f(y)>a$. Therefore $m({ f>a})>0$ and this is impossible, since $m({ fgeq a })=0$ (because $a in A$), $Omega$ has finite measure since it is (closed and) bounded and ${ f<a } $ and ${ f > a }$ are disjoint.


Provided the above reasoning holds I would like to extend from here the conclusion to a generic measurable $Omega$: anybody could give me a hint in this direction? (or show me why the general proposition is wrong?)



Thanks!






Edit



Thanks to everybody for the help. Maybe it could be more interesting to require $Omega$ non empty and connected.











share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $mathrm{ess, sup}$ has three consecutive $s$'s in defiance of the usual rules of spelling. Try using $mathrm{ess, sup}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Umberto P.
    Jan 11 at 16:53












  • $begingroup$
    Does $f: mathbb{R}^n supseteq Omega rightarrow mathbb{R}$ mean $f: Omega rightarrow mathbb{R}$ such that $Omega subseteq mathbb{R}^n$? If so the proposition seems false.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 18:25










  • $begingroup$
    @6005 Yes, can you give me a counterexample? And I would really appreciate some additional hypothesis to make the statement true
    $endgroup$
    – Leonardo
    Jan 11 at 18:29










  • $begingroup$
    @Leonardo I have given an answer with a counterexample, but my counterexample feels too simple so I may have missed something in the question
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 18:30














3












3








3





$begingroup$


My intuition tells me that the following proposition is true:




Let $f: Omega rightarrow mathbb{R}$ be a measurable function on a measurable set $Omega subseteq mathbb{R}^n$. If $f$ is continuous and non negative then $mathrm{ess, sup}(f)=text{sup}(f)$.




I'm using here the Borel sigma algebras on $Omega$ and $mathbb{R}$ respectively, and the Lebesgue measure $m$ on $Omega$.



My measure theory background is very poor, that being said I tried to give a proof for the case where $Omega$ is compact:



Let $A={a: m({ fgeq a })=0 }$. Therefore $mathrm{ess, sup}(f)= inf A = E$. Let also $M=max f = sup f$ (it exists because $f$ is continuous on a compact set). I will prove $E geq M$, and $E leq M$ (otherwise there would be a contradiction on the defition of $inf A$).





  • $E leq M$: if $a>M$ then ${ fgeq a }=emptyset$, so $m({ fgeq a })=0$, so $a in A$. Therefore $E=inf A leq M$


  • $E geq M$: let $a in A$, and suppose there's $x$ such that $f(x)>a$. By continuity of $f$ there also an open neighbourood $U(x)$ such that for every $yin U(x)$ $f(y)>a$. Therefore $m({ f>a})>0$ and this is impossible, since $m({ fgeq a })=0$ (because $a in A$), $Omega$ has finite measure since it is (closed and) bounded and ${ f<a } $ and ${ f > a }$ are disjoint.


Provided the above reasoning holds I would like to extend from here the conclusion to a generic measurable $Omega$: anybody could give me a hint in this direction? (or show me why the general proposition is wrong?)



Thanks!






Edit



Thanks to everybody for the help. Maybe it could be more interesting to require $Omega$ non empty and connected.











share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




My intuition tells me that the following proposition is true:




Let $f: Omega rightarrow mathbb{R}$ be a measurable function on a measurable set $Omega subseteq mathbb{R}^n$. If $f$ is continuous and non negative then $mathrm{ess, sup}(f)=text{sup}(f)$.




I'm using here the Borel sigma algebras on $Omega$ and $mathbb{R}$ respectively, and the Lebesgue measure $m$ on $Omega$.



My measure theory background is very poor, that being said I tried to give a proof for the case where $Omega$ is compact:



Let $A={a: m({ fgeq a })=0 }$. Therefore $mathrm{ess, sup}(f)= inf A = E$. Let also $M=max f = sup f$ (it exists because $f$ is continuous on a compact set). I will prove $E geq M$, and $E leq M$ (otherwise there would be a contradiction on the defition of $inf A$).





  • $E leq M$: if $a>M$ then ${ fgeq a }=emptyset$, so $m({ fgeq a })=0$, so $a in A$. Therefore $E=inf A leq M$


  • $E geq M$: let $a in A$, and suppose there's $x$ such that $f(x)>a$. By continuity of $f$ there also an open neighbourood $U(x)$ such that for every $yin U(x)$ $f(y)>a$. Therefore $m({ f>a})>0$ and this is impossible, since $m({ fgeq a })=0$ (because $a in A$), $Omega$ has finite measure since it is (closed and) bounded and ${ f<a } $ and ${ f > a }$ are disjoint.


Provided the above reasoning holds I would like to extend from here the conclusion to a generic measurable $Omega$: anybody could give me a hint in this direction? (or show me why the general proposition is wrong?)



Thanks!






Edit



Thanks to everybody for the help. Maybe it could be more interesting to require $Omega$ non empty and connected.








general-topology measure-theory lebesgue-measure






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 11 at 19:16







Leonardo

















asked Jan 11 at 13:31









LeonardoLeonardo

3449




3449








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $mathrm{ess, sup}$ has three consecutive $s$'s in defiance of the usual rules of spelling. Try using $mathrm{ess, sup}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Umberto P.
    Jan 11 at 16:53












  • $begingroup$
    Does $f: mathbb{R}^n supseteq Omega rightarrow mathbb{R}$ mean $f: Omega rightarrow mathbb{R}$ such that $Omega subseteq mathbb{R}^n$? If so the proposition seems false.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 18:25










  • $begingroup$
    @6005 Yes, can you give me a counterexample? And I would really appreciate some additional hypothesis to make the statement true
    $endgroup$
    – Leonardo
    Jan 11 at 18:29










  • $begingroup$
    @Leonardo I have given an answer with a counterexample, but my counterexample feels too simple so I may have missed something in the question
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 18:30














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $mathrm{ess, sup}$ has three consecutive $s$'s in defiance of the usual rules of spelling. Try using $mathrm{ess, sup}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Umberto P.
    Jan 11 at 16:53












  • $begingroup$
    Does $f: mathbb{R}^n supseteq Omega rightarrow mathbb{R}$ mean $f: Omega rightarrow mathbb{R}$ such that $Omega subseteq mathbb{R}^n$? If so the proposition seems false.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 18:25










  • $begingroup$
    @6005 Yes, can you give me a counterexample? And I would really appreciate some additional hypothesis to make the statement true
    $endgroup$
    – Leonardo
    Jan 11 at 18:29










  • $begingroup$
    @Leonardo I have given an answer with a counterexample, but my counterexample feels too simple so I may have missed something in the question
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 18:30








1




1




$begingroup$
$mathrm{ess, sup}$ has three consecutive $s$'s in defiance of the usual rules of spelling. Try using $mathrm{ess, sup}$.
$endgroup$
– Umberto P.
Jan 11 at 16:53






$begingroup$
$mathrm{ess, sup}$ has three consecutive $s$'s in defiance of the usual rules of spelling. Try using $mathrm{ess, sup}$.
$endgroup$
– Umberto P.
Jan 11 at 16:53














$begingroup$
Does $f: mathbb{R}^n supseteq Omega rightarrow mathbb{R}$ mean $f: Omega rightarrow mathbb{R}$ such that $Omega subseteq mathbb{R}^n$? If so the proposition seems false.
$endgroup$
– 6005
Jan 11 at 18:25




$begingroup$
Does $f: mathbb{R}^n supseteq Omega rightarrow mathbb{R}$ mean $f: Omega rightarrow mathbb{R}$ such that $Omega subseteq mathbb{R}^n$? If so the proposition seems false.
$endgroup$
– 6005
Jan 11 at 18:25












$begingroup$
@6005 Yes, can you give me a counterexample? And I would really appreciate some additional hypothesis to make the statement true
$endgroup$
– Leonardo
Jan 11 at 18:29




$begingroup$
@6005 Yes, can you give me a counterexample? And I would really appreciate some additional hypothesis to make the statement true
$endgroup$
– Leonardo
Jan 11 at 18:29












$begingroup$
@Leonardo I have given an answer with a counterexample, but my counterexample feels too simple so I may have missed something in the question
$endgroup$
– 6005
Jan 11 at 18:30




$begingroup$
@Leonardo I have given an answer with a counterexample, but my counterexample feels too simple so I may have missed something in the question
$endgroup$
– 6005
Jan 11 at 18:30










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















4












$begingroup$

For a counterexample to this proposition, take
$Omega = [0,1] cup {2}$ in $mathbb{R}$ with $f: Omega to mathbb{R}$ given by $f(x) = x$. This function is continuous.



Then $sup f = 2$, whereas $mathrm{ess,sup} f = 1$, since ${f ge 1} = {1,2}$ and $lambda({1,2}) = 0$ where $lambda$ is Lebesgue measure.





Additional condition to make it true:
Let's additionally assume that




$Omega ne varnothing$, and for all $x in Omega$, for any open ball $B$ around $x$, $$lambda(B cap Omega) > 0. tag{1}$$




Then, in this case your proposition is true.
For the proof, we already know $mathrm{ess,sup} f le sup f$, so we need to show $mathrm{ess,sup} f ge sup f$.
Equivalently, fix any $a < sup f$; we want to show that $lambda({f ge a}) > 0$. Since $a < sup f$, there exists $x_0$ such that $f(x_0) > a$.
Since $f$ is continuous, there exists an open ball $B$ containing $x_0$ such that for $x in B cap Omega$, $f(x) > a$. By our assumption (1) above, $lambda(B cap Omega) > 0$. So $lambda({f ge a}) > 0$.



Therefore, $mathrm{ess,sup} f = sup f$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks, this is very helpful and extends my work to non empty open sets. I added some hypothesis at the end of the post, to see if this can be further extended.
    $endgroup$
    – Leonardo
    Jan 11 at 19:24










  • $begingroup$
    Somehow I was implicitly taking $Omega$ to be open when I thought up my answer, so I wasn't thinking carefully enough. The proposition that the complement of a zero set is dense holds precisely if the condition you invoke is true, so my answer is useless and I've deleted it accordingly. +1 Nice answer!
    $endgroup$
    – user159517
    Jan 11 at 21:41





















0












$begingroup$

If $m(Omega)=0$ then $mathrm{ess, sup}_{Omega} f=-infty$ so the claim is false.



The result does hold if we assume that $m(Qcap Omega)>0$ for almost every $xin Omega$, and each open cube $Q$ containing $x$. (Without this condition, one of the other answers shows the claim is still false.)



In general, $sup fge mathrm{ess, sup} f$. So, suppose $b:=sup f>mathrm{ess, sup}f:=a$ and without loss of generality, assume that $f$ is bounded above (if not, consider $Omegacap Q_n$ for compact cubes $Q_n$ of edge length $n$).



Then, there is an $x_0in Omega$ and an $a'$ such that $a<a'<f(x_0)<b$ and a $delta >0$ and a cube $Qni x_0$ such that $f(Q)subseteq (a',b).$ But then, $m({ fgeq a' })ge m(Qcap Omega)>0,$ which is a contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Is $m(Q cap Omega) > 0$ for each $x in Omega$ is an additional assumption you are making? I have given a counterexample to the proposition in my answer.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 18:47












  • $begingroup$
    The additional assumption is that $m(Omega)>0$ which implies that for all open cubes for which $Omegacap Qneq emptyset$, one has $m(Omegacap Q)>0$. As you point out, the result is false if $m(Omega)=0.$
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    Jan 11 at 18:55












  • $begingroup$
    No, my counterexample has $m(Omega) = 1$. Your condition is stronger than that because you are saying that for all $x in Omega$ and for all open cubes $Q$ around $x$, $m(Q cap Q) > 0$.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 18:58










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, that is always true, as I have said in my answer.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 19:04










  • $begingroup$
    Do you agree that $[0,1] cup {2}$ is an $Omega$ that does not satisfy your open cube condition, and that in my answer I give a counterexample using this $Omega$?
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 19:05











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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









4












$begingroup$

For a counterexample to this proposition, take
$Omega = [0,1] cup {2}$ in $mathbb{R}$ with $f: Omega to mathbb{R}$ given by $f(x) = x$. This function is continuous.



Then $sup f = 2$, whereas $mathrm{ess,sup} f = 1$, since ${f ge 1} = {1,2}$ and $lambda({1,2}) = 0$ where $lambda$ is Lebesgue measure.





Additional condition to make it true:
Let's additionally assume that




$Omega ne varnothing$, and for all $x in Omega$, for any open ball $B$ around $x$, $$lambda(B cap Omega) > 0. tag{1}$$




Then, in this case your proposition is true.
For the proof, we already know $mathrm{ess,sup} f le sup f$, so we need to show $mathrm{ess,sup} f ge sup f$.
Equivalently, fix any $a < sup f$; we want to show that $lambda({f ge a}) > 0$. Since $a < sup f$, there exists $x_0$ such that $f(x_0) > a$.
Since $f$ is continuous, there exists an open ball $B$ containing $x_0$ such that for $x in B cap Omega$, $f(x) > a$. By our assumption (1) above, $lambda(B cap Omega) > 0$. So $lambda({f ge a}) > 0$.



Therefore, $mathrm{ess,sup} f = sup f$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks, this is very helpful and extends my work to non empty open sets. I added some hypothesis at the end of the post, to see if this can be further extended.
    $endgroup$
    – Leonardo
    Jan 11 at 19:24










  • $begingroup$
    Somehow I was implicitly taking $Omega$ to be open when I thought up my answer, so I wasn't thinking carefully enough. The proposition that the complement of a zero set is dense holds precisely if the condition you invoke is true, so my answer is useless and I've deleted it accordingly. +1 Nice answer!
    $endgroup$
    – user159517
    Jan 11 at 21:41


















4












$begingroup$

For a counterexample to this proposition, take
$Omega = [0,1] cup {2}$ in $mathbb{R}$ with $f: Omega to mathbb{R}$ given by $f(x) = x$. This function is continuous.



Then $sup f = 2$, whereas $mathrm{ess,sup} f = 1$, since ${f ge 1} = {1,2}$ and $lambda({1,2}) = 0$ where $lambda$ is Lebesgue measure.





Additional condition to make it true:
Let's additionally assume that




$Omega ne varnothing$, and for all $x in Omega$, for any open ball $B$ around $x$, $$lambda(B cap Omega) > 0. tag{1}$$




Then, in this case your proposition is true.
For the proof, we already know $mathrm{ess,sup} f le sup f$, so we need to show $mathrm{ess,sup} f ge sup f$.
Equivalently, fix any $a < sup f$; we want to show that $lambda({f ge a}) > 0$. Since $a < sup f$, there exists $x_0$ such that $f(x_0) > a$.
Since $f$ is continuous, there exists an open ball $B$ containing $x_0$ such that for $x in B cap Omega$, $f(x) > a$. By our assumption (1) above, $lambda(B cap Omega) > 0$. So $lambda({f ge a}) > 0$.



Therefore, $mathrm{ess,sup} f = sup f$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks, this is very helpful and extends my work to non empty open sets. I added some hypothesis at the end of the post, to see if this can be further extended.
    $endgroup$
    – Leonardo
    Jan 11 at 19:24










  • $begingroup$
    Somehow I was implicitly taking $Omega$ to be open when I thought up my answer, so I wasn't thinking carefully enough. The proposition that the complement of a zero set is dense holds precisely if the condition you invoke is true, so my answer is useless and I've deleted it accordingly. +1 Nice answer!
    $endgroup$
    – user159517
    Jan 11 at 21:41
















4












4








4





$begingroup$

For a counterexample to this proposition, take
$Omega = [0,1] cup {2}$ in $mathbb{R}$ with $f: Omega to mathbb{R}$ given by $f(x) = x$. This function is continuous.



Then $sup f = 2$, whereas $mathrm{ess,sup} f = 1$, since ${f ge 1} = {1,2}$ and $lambda({1,2}) = 0$ where $lambda$ is Lebesgue measure.





Additional condition to make it true:
Let's additionally assume that




$Omega ne varnothing$, and for all $x in Omega$, for any open ball $B$ around $x$, $$lambda(B cap Omega) > 0. tag{1}$$




Then, in this case your proposition is true.
For the proof, we already know $mathrm{ess,sup} f le sup f$, so we need to show $mathrm{ess,sup} f ge sup f$.
Equivalently, fix any $a < sup f$; we want to show that $lambda({f ge a}) > 0$. Since $a < sup f$, there exists $x_0$ such that $f(x_0) > a$.
Since $f$ is continuous, there exists an open ball $B$ containing $x_0$ such that for $x in B cap Omega$, $f(x) > a$. By our assumption (1) above, $lambda(B cap Omega) > 0$. So $lambda({f ge a}) > 0$.



Therefore, $mathrm{ess,sup} f = sup f$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



For a counterexample to this proposition, take
$Omega = [0,1] cup {2}$ in $mathbb{R}$ with $f: Omega to mathbb{R}$ given by $f(x) = x$. This function is continuous.



Then $sup f = 2$, whereas $mathrm{ess,sup} f = 1$, since ${f ge 1} = {1,2}$ and $lambda({1,2}) = 0$ where $lambda$ is Lebesgue measure.





Additional condition to make it true:
Let's additionally assume that




$Omega ne varnothing$, and for all $x in Omega$, for any open ball $B$ around $x$, $$lambda(B cap Omega) > 0. tag{1}$$




Then, in this case your proposition is true.
For the proof, we already know $mathrm{ess,sup} f le sup f$, so we need to show $mathrm{ess,sup} f ge sup f$.
Equivalently, fix any $a < sup f$; we want to show that $lambda({f ge a}) > 0$. Since $a < sup f$, there exists $x_0$ such that $f(x_0) > a$.
Since $f$ is continuous, there exists an open ball $B$ containing $x_0$ such that for $x in B cap Omega$, $f(x) > a$. By our assumption (1) above, $lambda(B cap Omega) > 0$. So $lambda({f ge a}) > 0$.



Therefore, $mathrm{ess,sup} f = sup f$.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Jan 11 at 18:46

























answered Jan 11 at 18:29









60056005

36.2k751125




36.2k751125












  • $begingroup$
    Thanks, this is very helpful and extends my work to non empty open sets. I added some hypothesis at the end of the post, to see if this can be further extended.
    $endgroup$
    – Leonardo
    Jan 11 at 19:24










  • $begingroup$
    Somehow I was implicitly taking $Omega$ to be open when I thought up my answer, so I wasn't thinking carefully enough. The proposition that the complement of a zero set is dense holds precisely if the condition you invoke is true, so my answer is useless and I've deleted it accordingly. +1 Nice answer!
    $endgroup$
    – user159517
    Jan 11 at 21:41




















  • $begingroup$
    Thanks, this is very helpful and extends my work to non empty open sets. I added some hypothesis at the end of the post, to see if this can be further extended.
    $endgroup$
    – Leonardo
    Jan 11 at 19:24










  • $begingroup$
    Somehow I was implicitly taking $Omega$ to be open when I thought up my answer, so I wasn't thinking carefully enough. The proposition that the complement of a zero set is dense holds precisely if the condition you invoke is true, so my answer is useless and I've deleted it accordingly. +1 Nice answer!
    $endgroup$
    – user159517
    Jan 11 at 21:41


















$begingroup$
Thanks, this is very helpful and extends my work to non empty open sets. I added some hypothesis at the end of the post, to see if this can be further extended.
$endgroup$
– Leonardo
Jan 11 at 19:24




$begingroup$
Thanks, this is very helpful and extends my work to non empty open sets. I added some hypothesis at the end of the post, to see if this can be further extended.
$endgroup$
– Leonardo
Jan 11 at 19:24












$begingroup$
Somehow I was implicitly taking $Omega$ to be open when I thought up my answer, so I wasn't thinking carefully enough. The proposition that the complement of a zero set is dense holds precisely if the condition you invoke is true, so my answer is useless and I've deleted it accordingly. +1 Nice answer!
$endgroup$
– user159517
Jan 11 at 21:41






$begingroup$
Somehow I was implicitly taking $Omega$ to be open when I thought up my answer, so I wasn't thinking carefully enough. The proposition that the complement of a zero set is dense holds precisely if the condition you invoke is true, so my answer is useless and I've deleted it accordingly. +1 Nice answer!
$endgroup$
– user159517
Jan 11 at 21:41













0












$begingroup$

If $m(Omega)=0$ then $mathrm{ess, sup}_{Omega} f=-infty$ so the claim is false.



The result does hold if we assume that $m(Qcap Omega)>0$ for almost every $xin Omega$, and each open cube $Q$ containing $x$. (Without this condition, one of the other answers shows the claim is still false.)



In general, $sup fge mathrm{ess, sup} f$. So, suppose $b:=sup f>mathrm{ess, sup}f:=a$ and without loss of generality, assume that $f$ is bounded above (if not, consider $Omegacap Q_n$ for compact cubes $Q_n$ of edge length $n$).



Then, there is an $x_0in Omega$ and an $a'$ such that $a<a'<f(x_0)<b$ and a $delta >0$ and a cube $Qni x_0$ such that $f(Q)subseteq (a',b).$ But then, $m({ fgeq a' })ge m(Qcap Omega)>0,$ which is a contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Is $m(Q cap Omega) > 0$ for each $x in Omega$ is an additional assumption you are making? I have given a counterexample to the proposition in my answer.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 18:47












  • $begingroup$
    The additional assumption is that $m(Omega)>0$ which implies that for all open cubes for which $Omegacap Qneq emptyset$, one has $m(Omegacap Q)>0$. As you point out, the result is false if $m(Omega)=0.$
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    Jan 11 at 18:55












  • $begingroup$
    No, my counterexample has $m(Omega) = 1$. Your condition is stronger than that because you are saying that for all $x in Omega$ and for all open cubes $Q$ around $x$, $m(Q cap Q) > 0$.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 18:58










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, that is always true, as I have said in my answer.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 19:04










  • $begingroup$
    Do you agree that $[0,1] cup {2}$ is an $Omega$ that does not satisfy your open cube condition, and that in my answer I give a counterexample using this $Omega$?
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 19:05
















0












$begingroup$

If $m(Omega)=0$ then $mathrm{ess, sup}_{Omega} f=-infty$ so the claim is false.



The result does hold if we assume that $m(Qcap Omega)>0$ for almost every $xin Omega$, and each open cube $Q$ containing $x$. (Without this condition, one of the other answers shows the claim is still false.)



In general, $sup fge mathrm{ess, sup} f$. So, suppose $b:=sup f>mathrm{ess, sup}f:=a$ and without loss of generality, assume that $f$ is bounded above (if not, consider $Omegacap Q_n$ for compact cubes $Q_n$ of edge length $n$).



Then, there is an $x_0in Omega$ and an $a'$ such that $a<a'<f(x_0)<b$ and a $delta >0$ and a cube $Qni x_0$ such that $f(Q)subseteq (a',b).$ But then, $m({ fgeq a' })ge m(Qcap Omega)>0,$ which is a contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Is $m(Q cap Omega) > 0$ for each $x in Omega$ is an additional assumption you are making? I have given a counterexample to the proposition in my answer.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 18:47












  • $begingroup$
    The additional assumption is that $m(Omega)>0$ which implies that for all open cubes for which $Omegacap Qneq emptyset$, one has $m(Omegacap Q)>0$. As you point out, the result is false if $m(Omega)=0.$
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    Jan 11 at 18:55












  • $begingroup$
    No, my counterexample has $m(Omega) = 1$. Your condition is stronger than that because you are saying that for all $x in Omega$ and for all open cubes $Q$ around $x$, $m(Q cap Q) > 0$.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 18:58










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, that is always true, as I have said in my answer.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 19:04










  • $begingroup$
    Do you agree that $[0,1] cup {2}$ is an $Omega$ that does not satisfy your open cube condition, and that in my answer I give a counterexample using this $Omega$?
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 19:05














0












0








0





$begingroup$

If $m(Omega)=0$ then $mathrm{ess, sup}_{Omega} f=-infty$ so the claim is false.



The result does hold if we assume that $m(Qcap Omega)>0$ for almost every $xin Omega$, and each open cube $Q$ containing $x$. (Without this condition, one of the other answers shows the claim is still false.)



In general, $sup fge mathrm{ess, sup} f$. So, suppose $b:=sup f>mathrm{ess, sup}f:=a$ and without loss of generality, assume that $f$ is bounded above (if not, consider $Omegacap Q_n$ for compact cubes $Q_n$ of edge length $n$).



Then, there is an $x_0in Omega$ and an $a'$ such that $a<a'<f(x_0)<b$ and a $delta >0$ and a cube $Qni x_0$ such that $f(Q)subseteq (a',b).$ But then, $m({ fgeq a' })ge m(Qcap Omega)>0,$ which is a contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



If $m(Omega)=0$ then $mathrm{ess, sup}_{Omega} f=-infty$ so the claim is false.



The result does hold if we assume that $m(Qcap Omega)>0$ for almost every $xin Omega$, and each open cube $Q$ containing $x$. (Without this condition, one of the other answers shows the claim is still false.)



In general, $sup fge mathrm{ess, sup} f$. So, suppose $b:=sup f>mathrm{ess, sup}f:=a$ and without loss of generality, assume that $f$ is bounded above (if not, consider $Omegacap Q_n$ for compact cubes $Q_n$ of edge length $n$).



Then, there is an $x_0in Omega$ and an $a'$ such that $a<a'<f(x_0)<b$ and a $delta >0$ and a cube $Qni x_0$ such that $f(Q)subseteq (a',b).$ But then, $m({ fgeq a' })ge m(Qcap Omega)>0,$ which is a contradiction.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Jan 11 at 21:31

























answered Jan 11 at 17:39









MatematletaMatematleta

10.8k2918




10.8k2918












  • $begingroup$
    Is $m(Q cap Omega) > 0$ for each $x in Omega$ is an additional assumption you are making? I have given a counterexample to the proposition in my answer.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 18:47












  • $begingroup$
    The additional assumption is that $m(Omega)>0$ which implies that for all open cubes for which $Omegacap Qneq emptyset$, one has $m(Omegacap Q)>0$. As you point out, the result is false if $m(Omega)=0.$
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    Jan 11 at 18:55












  • $begingroup$
    No, my counterexample has $m(Omega) = 1$. Your condition is stronger than that because you are saying that for all $x in Omega$ and for all open cubes $Q$ around $x$, $m(Q cap Q) > 0$.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 18:58










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, that is always true, as I have said in my answer.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 19:04










  • $begingroup$
    Do you agree that $[0,1] cup {2}$ is an $Omega$ that does not satisfy your open cube condition, and that in my answer I give a counterexample using this $Omega$?
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 19:05


















  • $begingroup$
    Is $m(Q cap Omega) > 0$ for each $x in Omega$ is an additional assumption you are making? I have given a counterexample to the proposition in my answer.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 18:47












  • $begingroup$
    The additional assumption is that $m(Omega)>0$ which implies that for all open cubes for which $Omegacap Qneq emptyset$, one has $m(Omegacap Q)>0$. As you point out, the result is false if $m(Omega)=0.$
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    Jan 11 at 18:55












  • $begingroup$
    No, my counterexample has $m(Omega) = 1$. Your condition is stronger than that because you are saying that for all $x in Omega$ and for all open cubes $Q$ around $x$, $m(Q cap Q) > 0$.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 18:58










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, that is always true, as I have said in my answer.
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 19:04










  • $begingroup$
    Do you agree that $[0,1] cup {2}$ is an $Omega$ that does not satisfy your open cube condition, and that in my answer I give a counterexample using this $Omega$?
    $endgroup$
    – 6005
    Jan 11 at 19:05
















$begingroup$
Is $m(Q cap Omega) > 0$ for each $x in Omega$ is an additional assumption you are making? I have given a counterexample to the proposition in my answer.
$endgroup$
– 6005
Jan 11 at 18:47






$begingroup$
Is $m(Q cap Omega) > 0$ for each $x in Omega$ is an additional assumption you are making? I have given a counterexample to the proposition in my answer.
$endgroup$
– 6005
Jan 11 at 18:47














$begingroup$
The additional assumption is that $m(Omega)>0$ which implies that for all open cubes for which $Omegacap Qneq emptyset$, one has $m(Omegacap Q)>0$. As you point out, the result is false if $m(Omega)=0.$
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Jan 11 at 18:55






$begingroup$
The additional assumption is that $m(Omega)>0$ which implies that for all open cubes for which $Omegacap Qneq emptyset$, one has $m(Omegacap Q)>0$. As you point out, the result is false if $m(Omega)=0.$
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Jan 11 at 18:55














$begingroup$
No, my counterexample has $m(Omega) = 1$. Your condition is stronger than that because you are saying that for all $x in Omega$ and for all open cubes $Q$ around $x$, $m(Q cap Q) > 0$.
$endgroup$
– 6005
Jan 11 at 18:58




$begingroup$
No, my counterexample has $m(Omega) = 1$. Your condition is stronger than that because you are saying that for all $x in Omega$ and for all open cubes $Q$ around $x$, $m(Q cap Q) > 0$.
$endgroup$
– 6005
Jan 11 at 18:58












$begingroup$
Yes, that is always true, as I have said in my answer.
$endgroup$
– 6005
Jan 11 at 19:04




$begingroup$
Yes, that is always true, as I have said in my answer.
$endgroup$
– 6005
Jan 11 at 19:04












$begingroup$
Do you agree that $[0,1] cup {2}$ is an $Omega$ that does not satisfy your open cube condition, and that in my answer I give a counterexample using this $Omega$?
$endgroup$
– 6005
Jan 11 at 19:05




$begingroup$
Do you agree that $[0,1] cup {2}$ is an $Omega$ that does not satisfy your open cube condition, and that in my answer I give a counterexample using this $Omega$?
$endgroup$
– 6005
Jan 11 at 19:05


















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