Definition of a smooth function on $[0,1]^k$












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Let $M$ be a smooth manifold, and $f: [0,1]^k rightarrow M$ be a continuous function which is smooth on $(0,1)^k$. I have seen two definitions of what it means for $f$ to be smooth. First, there exists an open neighborhood $U subset mathbb R^k$ such that $f$ extends to a smooth function on $U$. Second, at each point $p$ on the boundary of $[0,1]^k$, there exists an open neighborhood $U$ of $p$ such that $f$ extends to a smooth function on $U cap (0,1)^k$.



Are these two definitions equivalent? If not, what should be the "correct" definition? Say, for the purpose of defining singular homology and integration of differential forms?










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    Let $M$ be a smooth manifold, and $f: [0,1]^k rightarrow M$ be a continuous function which is smooth on $(0,1)^k$. I have seen two definitions of what it means for $f$ to be smooth. First, there exists an open neighborhood $U subset mathbb R^k$ such that $f$ extends to a smooth function on $U$. Second, at each point $p$ on the boundary of $[0,1]^k$, there exists an open neighborhood $U$ of $p$ such that $f$ extends to a smooth function on $U cap (0,1)^k$.



    Are these two definitions equivalent? If not, what should be the "correct" definition? Say, for the purpose of defining singular homology and integration of differential forms?










    share|cite|improve this question



























      1












      1








      1







      Let $M$ be a smooth manifold, and $f: [0,1]^k rightarrow M$ be a continuous function which is smooth on $(0,1)^k$. I have seen two definitions of what it means for $f$ to be smooth. First, there exists an open neighborhood $U subset mathbb R^k$ such that $f$ extends to a smooth function on $U$. Second, at each point $p$ on the boundary of $[0,1]^k$, there exists an open neighborhood $U$ of $p$ such that $f$ extends to a smooth function on $U cap (0,1)^k$.



      Are these two definitions equivalent? If not, what should be the "correct" definition? Say, for the purpose of defining singular homology and integration of differential forms?










      share|cite|improve this question















      Let $M$ be a smooth manifold, and $f: [0,1]^k rightarrow M$ be a continuous function which is smooth on $(0,1)^k$. I have seen two definitions of what it means for $f$ to be smooth. First, there exists an open neighborhood $U subset mathbb R^k$ such that $f$ extends to a smooth function on $U$. Second, at each point $p$ on the boundary of $[0,1]^k$, there exists an open neighborhood $U$ of $p$ such that $f$ extends to a smooth function on $U cap (0,1)^k$.



      Are these two definitions equivalent? If not, what should be the "correct" definition? Say, for the purpose of defining singular homology and integration of differential forms?







      calculus differential-geometry smooth-manifolds






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      edited Nov 21 '18 at 1:20

























      asked Nov 21 '18 at 1:04









      D_S

      13.4k51551




      13.4k51551






















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          Yes, these definitions are equivalents. The first one clearly implies the second. Using the notion of partition of unity (see here), you can show that the second one also implies the first.






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            Yes, both definition are equivalent. You can use partitions of unity: Suppose that for every $x$ in $[0,1]^k$ there exists an open neighborhood of $x$ and a smooth function $f_x:Ucap (0,1)^k to M$ wich agrees with $f$. By compactness of $[0,1]^k$ there exists a finite cover ${U_1,ldots, U_r}$ of $[0,1]^k$ consisting in some of such neighborhoods. Take a partition of unity ${varphi_1,ldots,varphi_r}$ subordinated to the cover and define $F:cup_iU_ito M$ by the formula $F(x)=sum_ivarphi_i(x)f_i(x)$.






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              2 Answers
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              Yes, these definitions are equivalents. The first one clearly implies the second. Using the notion of partition of unity (see here), you can show that the second one also implies the first.






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                1














                Yes, these definitions are equivalents. The first one clearly implies the second. Using the notion of partition of unity (see here), you can show that the second one also implies the first.






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  1












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                  Yes, these definitions are equivalents. The first one clearly implies the second. Using the notion of partition of unity (see here), you can show that the second one also implies the first.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  Yes, these definitions are equivalents. The first one clearly implies the second. Using the notion of partition of unity (see here), you can show that the second one also implies the first.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 21 '18 at 1:18









                  rldias

                  2,9901522




                  2,9901522























                      2














                      Yes, both definition are equivalent. You can use partitions of unity: Suppose that for every $x$ in $[0,1]^k$ there exists an open neighborhood of $x$ and a smooth function $f_x:Ucap (0,1)^k to M$ wich agrees with $f$. By compactness of $[0,1]^k$ there exists a finite cover ${U_1,ldots, U_r}$ of $[0,1]^k$ consisting in some of such neighborhoods. Take a partition of unity ${varphi_1,ldots,varphi_r}$ subordinated to the cover and define $F:cup_iU_ito M$ by the formula $F(x)=sum_ivarphi_i(x)f_i(x)$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer


























                        2














                        Yes, both definition are equivalent. You can use partitions of unity: Suppose that for every $x$ in $[0,1]^k$ there exists an open neighborhood of $x$ and a smooth function $f_x:Ucap (0,1)^k to M$ wich agrees with $f$. By compactness of $[0,1]^k$ there exists a finite cover ${U_1,ldots, U_r}$ of $[0,1]^k$ consisting in some of such neighborhoods. Take a partition of unity ${varphi_1,ldots,varphi_r}$ subordinated to the cover and define $F:cup_iU_ito M$ by the formula $F(x)=sum_ivarphi_i(x)f_i(x)$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer
























                          2












                          2








                          2






                          Yes, both definition are equivalent. You can use partitions of unity: Suppose that for every $x$ in $[0,1]^k$ there exists an open neighborhood of $x$ and a smooth function $f_x:Ucap (0,1)^k to M$ wich agrees with $f$. By compactness of $[0,1]^k$ there exists a finite cover ${U_1,ldots, U_r}$ of $[0,1]^k$ consisting in some of such neighborhoods. Take a partition of unity ${varphi_1,ldots,varphi_r}$ subordinated to the cover and define $F:cup_iU_ito M$ by the formula $F(x)=sum_ivarphi_i(x)f_i(x)$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          Yes, both definition are equivalent. You can use partitions of unity: Suppose that for every $x$ in $[0,1]^k$ there exists an open neighborhood of $x$ and a smooth function $f_x:Ucap (0,1)^k to M$ wich agrees with $f$. By compactness of $[0,1]^k$ there exists a finite cover ${U_1,ldots, U_r}$ of $[0,1]^k$ consisting in some of such neighborhoods. Take a partition of unity ${varphi_1,ldots,varphi_r}$ subordinated to the cover and define $F:cup_iU_ito M$ by the formula $F(x)=sum_ivarphi_i(x)f_i(x)$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












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                          answered Nov 21 '18 at 1:24









                          Dante Grevino

                          94319




                          94319






























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