Find limit of $a_n = ln (1 + a_{n-1})$












2














Sequence $a_n$ is defined as $a_n = ln (1 + a_{n-1})$, where $a_0 > -1$. Find all $a_0$ for which the sequence converges.



Using arithmetic properties of limits, I've found that if the sequence converges, then it converges to $0$, but I don't know how to prove it and find $a_0$.










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    2














    Sequence $a_n$ is defined as $a_n = ln (1 + a_{n-1})$, where $a_0 > -1$. Find all $a_0$ for which the sequence converges.



    Using arithmetic properties of limits, I've found that if the sequence converges, then it converges to $0$, but I don't know how to prove it and find $a_0$.










    share|cite|improve this question

























      2












      2








      2


      2





      Sequence $a_n$ is defined as $a_n = ln (1 + a_{n-1})$, where $a_0 > -1$. Find all $a_0$ for which the sequence converges.



      Using arithmetic properties of limits, I've found that if the sequence converges, then it converges to $0$, but I don't know how to prove it and find $a_0$.










      share|cite|improve this question













      Sequence $a_n$ is defined as $a_n = ln (1 + a_{n-1})$, where $a_0 > -1$. Find all $a_0$ for which the sequence converges.



      Using arithmetic properties of limits, I've found that if the sequence converges, then it converges to $0$, but I don't know how to prove it and find $a_0$.







      calculus limits






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      asked Nov 20 '18 at 23:24









      user4201961

      634411




      634411






















          4 Answers
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          You are correct in finding the limit in case of existence to be $0$



          Notice that you are finding the fixed point of the function $$f(x)=ln (1+x)$$



          The derivative of your function is $$f'(x) = frac {1}{1+x}$$



          As you notice the derivative is positive for the domain of your function which is $x>-1$



          We have $frac {1}{1+x} <1$ for $x>0$ and $frac {1}{1+x} >1$ for $-1<x<0$



          Thuerefore the sequence will converge to $0$ for $x_0>0$ and diverge for $x_0<0$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • When $x_0<0$, $(a_n)$ is not a sequence.
            – hamam_Abdallah
            Nov 21 '18 at 11:02



















          2














          hint



          for $x>-1$
          $$ln(1+x)le x$$
          the sequence is decreasing.



          if $-1<a_0<0$ the sequence is not well defined



          if $a_0=0$ it is constant.



          if $a_0>0$ the sequence is decreasing and positive.



          the unique fixed point is zero . the sequence goes to zero.






          share|cite|improve this answer





























            2














            Note that we must have $a_n > 1$ for all $n$, else $a_{n+1}$ is not even well defined (I'll assume this silently throughout).



            We note that $a_n geq a_{n+1}$ if and only if $e^{a_n}geq 1 + a_n$. Given the power series expansion of $e^x$, we have $$e^{a_n} - (1 + a_n) = sumlimits_{i=2}^{infty}frac{a_n^i}{i!},$$ which is clearly non-negative for all $a_n$. Thus, the sequence is decreasing, and hence monotonic, for any $a_0$.



            Now, decreasing sequences converge if and only if they are bounded below, and given what you already know about what it must converge to, you essentially already know the answer, so we just need to show that the sequence is bounded below for $a_0 geq 0$, but not for $a_0 < 0$.



            We'll do those in order: if some $a_n geq 0$, then $a_{n+1} = ln(1 + a_n) geq ln(1) = 0$, so indeed the sequence is bounded below by $0$ for $a_0 geq 0$, and so converges for all such values.



            On the other hand, if $a_0 < 0$, then, since our sequence is decreasing, it cannot converge to $0$ (it ever gets within a distance $|a_0|$ of $0$), so, by the argument that you already have, cannot converge.



            Thus, our sequence converges exactly for $a_0 geq 0$.






            share|cite|improve this answer





























              1














              HINT



              We can show that as $a_0 >0$





              • $a_n$ is decreasing


              • $a_n$ is bounded below






              share|cite|improve this answer























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                4 Answers
                4






                active

                oldest

                votes








                4 Answers
                4






                active

                oldest

                votes









                active

                oldest

                votes






                active

                oldest

                votes









                2














                You are correct in finding the limit in case of existence to be $0$



                Notice that you are finding the fixed point of the function $$f(x)=ln (1+x)$$



                The derivative of your function is $$f'(x) = frac {1}{1+x}$$



                As you notice the derivative is positive for the domain of your function which is $x>-1$



                We have $frac {1}{1+x} <1$ for $x>0$ and $frac {1}{1+x} >1$ for $-1<x<0$



                Thuerefore the sequence will converge to $0$ for $x_0>0$ and diverge for $x_0<0$






                share|cite|improve this answer





















                • When $x_0<0$, $(a_n)$ is not a sequence.
                  – hamam_Abdallah
                  Nov 21 '18 at 11:02
















                2














                You are correct in finding the limit in case of existence to be $0$



                Notice that you are finding the fixed point of the function $$f(x)=ln (1+x)$$



                The derivative of your function is $$f'(x) = frac {1}{1+x}$$



                As you notice the derivative is positive for the domain of your function which is $x>-1$



                We have $frac {1}{1+x} <1$ for $x>0$ and $frac {1}{1+x} >1$ for $-1<x<0$



                Thuerefore the sequence will converge to $0$ for $x_0>0$ and diverge for $x_0<0$






                share|cite|improve this answer





















                • When $x_0<0$, $(a_n)$ is not a sequence.
                  – hamam_Abdallah
                  Nov 21 '18 at 11:02














                2












                2








                2






                You are correct in finding the limit in case of existence to be $0$



                Notice that you are finding the fixed point of the function $$f(x)=ln (1+x)$$



                The derivative of your function is $$f'(x) = frac {1}{1+x}$$



                As you notice the derivative is positive for the domain of your function which is $x>-1$



                We have $frac {1}{1+x} <1$ for $x>0$ and $frac {1}{1+x} >1$ for $-1<x<0$



                Thuerefore the sequence will converge to $0$ for $x_0>0$ and diverge for $x_0<0$






                share|cite|improve this answer












                You are correct in finding the limit in case of existence to be $0$



                Notice that you are finding the fixed point of the function $$f(x)=ln (1+x)$$



                The derivative of your function is $$f'(x) = frac {1}{1+x}$$



                As you notice the derivative is positive for the domain of your function which is $x>-1$



                We have $frac {1}{1+x} <1$ for $x>0$ and $frac {1}{1+x} >1$ for $-1<x<0$



                Thuerefore the sequence will converge to $0$ for $x_0>0$ and diverge for $x_0<0$







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Nov 20 '18 at 23:49









                Mohammad Riazi-Kermani

                41k42059




                41k42059












                • When $x_0<0$, $(a_n)$ is not a sequence.
                  – hamam_Abdallah
                  Nov 21 '18 at 11:02


















                • When $x_0<0$, $(a_n)$ is not a sequence.
                  – hamam_Abdallah
                  Nov 21 '18 at 11:02
















                When $x_0<0$, $(a_n)$ is not a sequence.
                – hamam_Abdallah
                Nov 21 '18 at 11:02




                When $x_0<0$, $(a_n)$ is not a sequence.
                – hamam_Abdallah
                Nov 21 '18 at 11:02











                2














                hint



                for $x>-1$
                $$ln(1+x)le x$$
                the sequence is decreasing.



                if $-1<a_0<0$ the sequence is not well defined



                if $a_0=0$ it is constant.



                if $a_0>0$ the sequence is decreasing and positive.



                the unique fixed point is zero . the sequence goes to zero.






                share|cite|improve this answer


























                  2














                  hint



                  for $x>-1$
                  $$ln(1+x)le x$$
                  the sequence is decreasing.



                  if $-1<a_0<0$ the sequence is not well defined



                  if $a_0=0$ it is constant.



                  if $a_0>0$ the sequence is decreasing and positive.



                  the unique fixed point is zero . the sequence goes to zero.






                  share|cite|improve this answer
























                    2












                    2








                    2






                    hint



                    for $x>-1$
                    $$ln(1+x)le x$$
                    the sequence is decreasing.



                    if $-1<a_0<0$ the sequence is not well defined



                    if $a_0=0$ it is constant.



                    if $a_0>0$ the sequence is decreasing and positive.



                    the unique fixed point is zero . the sequence goes to zero.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    hint



                    for $x>-1$
                    $$ln(1+x)le x$$
                    the sequence is decreasing.



                    if $-1<a_0<0$ the sequence is not well defined



                    if $a_0=0$ it is constant.



                    if $a_0>0$ the sequence is decreasing and positive.



                    the unique fixed point is zero . the sequence goes to zero.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Nov 20 '18 at 23:46









                    hamam_Abdallah

                    38k21634




                    38k21634























                        2














                        Note that we must have $a_n > 1$ for all $n$, else $a_{n+1}$ is not even well defined (I'll assume this silently throughout).



                        We note that $a_n geq a_{n+1}$ if and only if $e^{a_n}geq 1 + a_n$. Given the power series expansion of $e^x$, we have $$e^{a_n} - (1 + a_n) = sumlimits_{i=2}^{infty}frac{a_n^i}{i!},$$ which is clearly non-negative for all $a_n$. Thus, the sequence is decreasing, and hence monotonic, for any $a_0$.



                        Now, decreasing sequences converge if and only if they are bounded below, and given what you already know about what it must converge to, you essentially already know the answer, so we just need to show that the sequence is bounded below for $a_0 geq 0$, but not for $a_0 < 0$.



                        We'll do those in order: if some $a_n geq 0$, then $a_{n+1} = ln(1 + a_n) geq ln(1) = 0$, so indeed the sequence is bounded below by $0$ for $a_0 geq 0$, and so converges for all such values.



                        On the other hand, if $a_0 < 0$, then, since our sequence is decreasing, it cannot converge to $0$ (it ever gets within a distance $|a_0|$ of $0$), so, by the argument that you already have, cannot converge.



                        Thus, our sequence converges exactly for $a_0 geq 0$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer


























                          2














                          Note that we must have $a_n > 1$ for all $n$, else $a_{n+1}$ is not even well defined (I'll assume this silently throughout).



                          We note that $a_n geq a_{n+1}$ if and only if $e^{a_n}geq 1 + a_n$. Given the power series expansion of $e^x$, we have $$e^{a_n} - (1 + a_n) = sumlimits_{i=2}^{infty}frac{a_n^i}{i!},$$ which is clearly non-negative for all $a_n$. Thus, the sequence is decreasing, and hence monotonic, for any $a_0$.



                          Now, decreasing sequences converge if and only if they are bounded below, and given what you already know about what it must converge to, you essentially already know the answer, so we just need to show that the sequence is bounded below for $a_0 geq 0$, but not for $a_0 < 0$.



                          We'll do those in order: if some $a_n geq 0$, then $a_{n+1} = ln(1 + a_n) geq ln(1) = 0$, so indeed the sequence is bounded below by $0$ for $a_0 geq 0$, and so converges for all such values.



                          On the other hand, if $a_0 < 0$, then, since our sequence is decreasing, it cannot converge to $0$ (it ever gets within a distance $|a_0|$ of $0$), so, by the argument that you already have, cannot converge.



                          Thus, our sequence converges exactly for $a_0 geq 0$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer
























                            2












                            2








                            2






                            Note that we must have $a_n > 1$ for all $n$, else $a_{n+1}$ is not even well defined (I'll assume this silently throughout).



                            We note that $a_n geq a_{n+1}$ if and only if $e^{a_n}geq 1 + a_n$. Given the power series expansion of $e^x$, we have $$e^{a_n} - (1 + a_n) = sumlimits_{i=2}^{infty}frac{a_n^i}{i!},$$ which is clearly non-negative for all $a_n$. Thus, the sequence is decreasing, and hence monotonic, for any $a_0$.



                            Now, decreasing sequences converge if and only if they are bounded below, and given what you already know about what it must converge to, you essentially already know the answer, so we just need to show that the sequence is bounded below for $a_0 geq 0$, but not for $a_0 < 0$.



                            We'll do those in order: if some $a_n geq 0$, then $a_{n+1} = ln(1 + a_n) geq ln(1) = 0$, so indeed the sequence is bounded below by $0$ for $a_0 geq 0$, and so converges for all such values.



                            On the other hand, if $a_0 < 0$, then, since our sequence is decreasing, it cannot converge to $0$ (it ever gets within a distance $|a_0|$ of $0$), so, by the argument that you already have, cannot converge.



                            Thus, our sequence converges exactly for $a_0 geq 0$.






                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            Note that we must have $a_n > 1$ for all $n$, else $a_{n+1}$ is not even well defined (I'll assume this silently throughout).



                            We note that $a_n geq a_{n+1}$ if and only if $e^{a_n}geq 1 + a_n$. Given the power series expansion of $e^x$, we have $$e^{a_n} - (1 + a_n) = sumlimits_{i=2}^{infty}frac{a_n^i}{i!},$$ which is clearly non-negative for all $a_n$. Thus, the sequence is decreasing, and hence monotonic, for any $a_0$.



                            Now, decreasing sequences converge if and only if they are bounded below, and given what you already know about what it must converge to, you essentially already know the answer, so we just need to show that the sequence is bounded below for $a_0 geq 0$, but not for $a_0 < 0$.



                            We'll do those in order: if some $a_n geq 0$, then $a_{n+1} = ln(1 + a_n) geq ln(1) = 0$, so indeed the sequence is bounded below by $0$ for $a_0 geq 0$, and so converges for all such values.



                            On the other hand, if $a_0 < 0$, then, since our sequence is decreasing, it cannot converge to $0$ (it ever gets within a distance $|a_0|$ of $0$), so, by the argument that you already have, cannot converge.



                            Thus, our sequence converges exactly for $a_0 geq 0$.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Nov 20 '18 at 23:49









                            user3482749

                            2,672414




                            2,672414























                                1














                                HINT



                                We can show that as $a_0 >0$





                                • $a_n$ is decreasing


                                • $a_n$ is bounded below






                                share|cite|improve this answer




























                                  1














                                  HINT



                                  We can show that as $a_0 >0$





                                  • $a_n$ is decreasing


                                  • $a_n$ is bounded below






                                  share|cite|improve this answer


























                                    1












                                    1








                                    1






                                    HINT



                                    We can show that as $a_0 >0$





                                    • $a_n$ is decreasing


                                    • $a_n$ is bounded below






                                    share|cite|improve this answer














                                    HINT



                                    We can show that as $a_0 >0$





                                    • $a_n$ is decreasing


                                    • $a_n$ is bounded below







                                    share|cite|improve this answer














                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer








                                    edited Nov 20 '18 at 23:48

























                                    answered Nov 20 '18 at 23:37









                                    gimusi

                                    1




                                    1






























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