Inequality regarding sum of squared probabilities












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I'm working on a problem set for a course on Machine Learning and one the problems asks me to prove a given inequality. As an aid for that, the problem gives me the hint to use the following result, which I can understand but I am not able to prove:




Show that $Sigma_i a_i^2 geq a_1^2 + frac{(1-a_1)^2}{C-1}$ for any $C$ real numbers such that $a_1 geq a_2 geq ... geq a_C geq 0$ and $Sigma_i a_i = 1$




This is speacially useful in the exercise when the $a_i$ are probabilities. However, I could not prove the result. I tried using contradictions and even induction but without any success. Any ideas on how to prove? Thanks a lot in advance!










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    1














    I'm working on a problem set for a course on Machine Learning and one the problems asks me to prove a given inequality. As an aid for that, the problem gives me the hint to use the following result, which I can understand but I am not able to prove:




    Show that $Sigma_i a_i^2 geq a_1^2 + frac{(1-a_1)^2}{C-1}$ for any $C$ real numbers such that $a_1 geq a_2 geq ... geq a_C geq 0$ and $Sigma_i a_i = 1$




    This is speacially useful in the exercise when the $a_i$ are probabilities. However, I could not prove the result. I tried using contradictions and even induction but without any success. Any ideas on how to prove? Thanks a lot in advance!










    share|cite|improve this question

























      1












      1








      1







      I'm working on a problem set for a course on Machine Learning and one the problems asks me to prove a given inequality. As an aid for that, the problem gives me the hint to use the following result, which I can understand but I am not able to prove:




      Show that $Sigma_i a_i^2 geq a_1^2 + frac{(1-a_1)^2}{C-1}$ for any $C$ real numbers such that $a_1 geq a_2 geq ... geq a_C geq 0$ and $Sigma_i a_i = 1$




      This is speacially useful in the exercise when the $a_i$ are probabilities. However, I could not prove the result. I tried using contradictions and even induction but without any success. Any ideas on how to prove? Thanks a lot in advance!










      share|cite|improve this question













      I'm working on a problem set for a course on Machine Learning and one the problems asks me to prove a given inequality. As an aid for that, the problem gives me the hint to use the following result, which I can understand but I am not able to prove:




      Show that $Sigma_i a_i^2 geq a_1^2 + frac{(1-a_1)^2}{C-1}$ for any $C$ real numbers such that $a_1 geq a_2 geq ... geq a_C geq 0$ and $Sigma_i a_i = 1$




      This is speacially useful in the exercise when the $a_i$ are probabilities. However, I could not prove the result. I tried using contradictions and even induction but without any success. Any ideas on how to prove? Thanks a lot in advance!







      probability inequality induction sums-of-squares






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      asked Nov 20 '18 at 11:46









      Raul Guarini

      460211




      460211






















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          By Cauchy-Schwarz,
          $$(1-a_1)^2 = left( sum_{j=2}^C a_jright)^2 le sum_{j=2}^C a_j^2 cdot (C-1)$$






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          • Thanks for your answer! I think this solves the problem.
            – Raul Guarini
            Nov 20 '18 at 12:26











          Your Answer





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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






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          active

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          active

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          0














          By Cauchy-Schwarz,
          $$(1-a_1)^2 = left( sum_{j=2}^C a_jright)^2 le sum_{j=2}^C a_j^2 cdot (C-1)$$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks for your answer! I think this solves the problem.
            – Raul Guarini
            Nov 20 '18 at 12:26
















          0














          By Cauchy-Schwarz,
          $$(1-a_1)^2 = left( sum_{j=2}^C a_jright)^2 le sum_{j=2}^C a_j^2 cdot (C-1)$$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks for your answer! I think this solves the problem.
            – Raul Guarini
            Nov 20 '18 at 12:26














          0












          0








          0






          By Cauchy-Schwarz,
          $$(1-a_1)^2 = left( sum_{j=2}^C a_jright)^2 le sum_{j=2}^C a_j^2 cdot (C-1)$$






          share|cite|improve this answer












          By Cauchy-Schwarz,
          $$(1-a_1)^2 = left( sum_{j=2}^C a_jright)^2 le sum_{j=2}^C a_j^2 cdot (C-1)$$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 20 '18 at 12:06









          Richard Martin

          1,63618




          1,63618












          • Thanks for your answer! I think this solves the problem.
            – Raul Guarini
            Nov 20 '18 at 12:26


















          • Thanks for your answer! I think this solves the problem.
            – Raul Guarini
            Nov 20 '18 at 12:26
















          Thanks for your answer! I think this solves the problem.
          – Raul Guarini
          Nov 20 '18 at 12:26




          Thanks for your answer! I think this solves the problem.
          – Raul Guarini
          Nov 20 '18 at 12:26


















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