$s-s_{n} =sum_{k=n+1}^infty f(k)$ = sum of areas of rectangle












0












$begingroup$


This is regarding "using Integral Bounds to Estimate the Sum of a Series"



I do understand the proof for the integral test. However not as my book explains it.



So consider the expression below:



$s-s_{n} =sum_{k=n+1}^infty f(k)$ = sum of areas of rectangle



how does the limit s subtracted by the general expression for the reimann sum $s_{n}$ equal the sum of areas of a rectangle?



I do understand that a riemann sum for $a_{n}$ with a width of 1 gives me the area of each rectangle.



But



$s-s_{n} =sum_{k=n+1}^infty f(k)$ = sum of areas of rectangles



is lost on me.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I think you'll need to write out the proof in your book, because it's impossible to follow this logic without some wider context.
    $endgroup$
    – Theo Bendit
    Jan 7 at 23:12
















0












$begingroup$


This is regarding "using Integral Bounds to Estimate the Sum of a Series"



I do understand the proof for the integral test. However not as my book explains it.



So consider the expression below:



$s-s_{n} =sum_{k=n+1}^infty f(k)$ = sum of areas of rectangle



how does the limit s subtracted by the general expression for the reimann sum $s_{n}$ equal the sum of areas of a rectangle?



I do understand that a riemann sum for $a_{n}$ with a width of 1 gives me the area of each rectangle.



But



$s-s_{n} =sum_{k=n+1}^infty f(k)$ = sum of areas of rectangles



is lost on me.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I think you'll need to write out the proof in your book, because it's impossible to follow this logic without some wider context.
    $endgroup$
    – Theo Bendit
    Jan 7 at 23:12














0












0








0





$begingroup$


This is regarding "using Integral Bounds to Estimate the Sum of a Series"



I do understand the proof for the integral test. However not as my book explains it.



So consider the expression below:



$s-s_{n} =sum_{k=n+1}^infty f(k)$ = sum of areas of rectangle



how does the limit s subtracted by the general expression for the reimann sum $s_{n}$ equal the sum of areas of a rectangle?



I do understand that a riemann sum for $a_{n}$ with a width of 1 gives me the area of each rectangle.



But



$s-s_{n} =sum_{k=n+1}^infty f(k)$ = sum of areas of rectangles



is lost on me.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




This is regarding "using Integral Bounds to Estimate the Sum of a Series"



I do understand the proof for the integral test. However not as my book explains it.



So consider the expression below:



$s-s_{n} =sum_{k=n+1}^infty f(k)$ = sum of areas of rectangle



how does the limit s subtracted by the general expression for the reimann sum $s_{n}$ equal the sum of areas of a rectangle?



I do understand that a riemann sum for $a_{n}$ with a width of 1 gives me the area of each rectangle.



But



$s-s_{n} =sum_{k=n+1}^infty f(k)$ = sum of areas of rectangles



is lost on me.







integration convergence






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Jan 7 at 22:50









oxodooxodo

32219




32219












  • $begingroup$
    I think you'll need to write out the proof in your book, because it's impossible to follow this logic without some wider context.
    $endgroup$
    – Theo Bendit
    Jan 7 at 23:12


















  • $begingroup$
    I think you'll need to write out the proof in your book, because it's impossible to follow this logic without some wider context.
    $endgroup$
    – Theo Bendit
    Jan 7 at 23:12
















$begingroup$
I think you'll need to write out the proof in your book, because it's impossible to follow this logic without some wider context.
$endgroup$
– Theo Bendit
Jan 7 at 23:12




$begingroup$
I think you'll need to write out the proof in your book, because it's impossible to follow this logic without some wider context.
$endgroup$
– Theo Bendit
Jan 7 at 23:12










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