Union of lines $ { y = x/n : n in mathbb N+ }$ not homeomorphic to infinite wedge sum of lines?











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As is described in the title, I believe $ { y = x/n : n in mathbb N+ }$ is homeomorphic to the infinite wedge sum $bigvee _infty mathbb R $, since the natural bijection is continuous at the crossing point in both direction. But a friend of mine told me it was wrong.



Another related question which appears on Hatcher's text is the union of circles centered $(n,0)$ with radius $n$. Again, it is claimed that it is not homeomorphic to the infinite wedge $bigvee _infty S^1 $, and I can't figure out the reason.



Could anybody explain the two baffling questions please? Thanks!!










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    As is described in the title, I believe $ { y = x/n : n in mathbb N+ }$ is homeomorphic to the infinite wedge sum $bigvee _infty mathbb R $, since the natural bijection is continuous at the crossing point in both direction. But a friend of mine told me it was wrong.



    Another related question which appears on Hatcher's text is the union of circles centered $(n,0)$ with radius $n$. Again, it is claimed that it is not homeomorphic to the infinite wedge $bigvee _infty S^1 $, and I can't figure out the reason.



    Could anybody explain the two baffling questions please? Thanks!!










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      As is described in the title, I believe $ { y = x/n : n in mathbb N+ }$ is homeomorphic to the infinite wedge sum $bigvee _infty mathbb R $, since the natural bijection is continuous at the crossing point in both direction. But a friend of mine told me it was wrong.



      Another related question which appears on Hatcher's text is the union of circles centered $(n,0)$ with radius $n$. Again, it is claimed that it is not homeomorphic to the infinite wedge $bigvee _infty S^1 $, and I can't figure out the reason.



      Could anybody explain the two baffling questions please? Thanks!!










      share|cite|improve this question













      As is described in the title, I believe $ { y = x/n : n in mathbb N+ }$ is homeomorphic to the infinite wedge sum $bigvee _infty mathbb R $, since the natural bijection is continuous at the crossing point in both direction. But a friend of mine told me it was wrong.



      Another related question which appears on Hatcher's text is the union of circles centered $(n,0)$ with radius $n$. Again, it is claimed that it is not homeomorphic to the infinite wedge $bigvee _infty S^1 $, and I can't figure out the reason.



      Could anybody explain the two baffling questions please? Thanks!!







      general-topology algebraic-topology homotopy-theory






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      asked 1 hour ago









      Dromeda

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          In both cases the subspace topology that your union inherits from the plane is metrizable.
          The corresponding wedge, a quotient of the union, is not. At the vertex the quotient does not have a countable neighbourhood base: given a countable sequence $langle U_n:ninmathbb{N}rangle$ of neighbourhoods take in the $k$th space a neighbourhood $O_k$ of the point corresponding to the vertex that is a proper subset of $bigcap_{nle k}U_n$. Then the $O_k$ determine a neighbourhood $O$ of the vertex that contains none of the $U_n$.






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            In both cases the subspace topology that your union inherits from the plane is metrizable.
            The corresponding wedge, a quotient of the union, is not. At the vertex the quotient does not have a countable neighbourhood base: given a countable sequence $langle U_n:ninmathbb{N}rangle$ of neighbourhoods take in the $k$th space a neighbourhood $O_k$ of the point corresponding to the vertex that is a proper subset of $bigcap_{nle k}U_n$. Then the $O_k$ determine a neighbourhood $O$ of the vertex that contains none of the $U_n$.






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              up vote
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              down vote













              In both cases the subspace topology that your union inherits from the plane is metrizable.
              The corresponding wedge, a quotient of the union, is not. At the vertex the quotient does not have a countable neighbourhood base: given a countable sequence $langle U_n:ninmathbb{N}rangle$ of neighbourhoods take in the $k$th space a neighbourhood $O_k$ of the point corresponding to the vertex that is a proper subset of $bigcap_{nle k}U_n$. Then the $O_k$ determine a neighbourhood $O$ of the vertex that contains none of the $U_n$.






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                up vote
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                up vote
                0
                down vote









                In both cases the subspace topology that your union inherits from the plane is metrizable.
                The corresponding wedge, a quotient of the union, is not. At the vertex the quotient does not have a countable neighbourhood base: given a countable sequence $langle U_n:ninmathbb{N}rangle$ of neighbourhoods take in the $k$th space a neighbourhood $O_k$ of the point corresponding to the vertex that is a proper subset of $bigcap_{nle k}U_n$. Then the $O_k$ determine a neighbourhood $O$ of the vertex that contains none of the $U_n$.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                In both cases the subspace topology that your union inherits from the plane is metrizable.
                The corresponding wedge, a quotient of the union, is not. At the vertex the quotient does not have a countable neighbourhood base: given a countable sequence $langle U_n:ninmathbb{N}rangle$ of neighbourhoods take in the $k$th space a neighbourhood $O_k$ of the point corresponding to the vertex that is a proper subset of $bigcap_{nle k}U_n$. Then the $O_k$ determine a neighbourhood $O$ of the vertex that contains none of the $U_n$.







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                answered 1 hour ago









                hartkp

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