Evaluate definite integral with variable limits [closed]












1












$begingroup$


Consider the function $f: (0, infty) to R $



$$ f(x)= begin{cases}
int_{x}^{x^2} frac{dt}{log(t)} & xneq 1 \
l & x=1 \
end{cases}
$$



Determine $l$ such that the function $f$ should be continuous at 1. For the determined value of $l$, is the function differentiable?



I started out by trying to calculate the following limit, however, I had trouble continuing.



$$lim_{xto1}int_{x}^{x^2}frac{mathrm dt}{log(t)}$$



Thank you!










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closed as off-topic by amWhy, RRL, Abcd, jgon, rtybase Jan 4 at 21:13


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – amWhy, RRL, Abcd, jgon, rtybase

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Your integral itself is a very special integral called the Logarithmic Integral. If you were to evaluate the given integral, you would get $ lim_{x to 1 } (Gamma{(0, -ln x)} - Gamma{(0, -2 ln x)} )$
    $endgroup$
    – Tusky
    Jan 4 at 13:32












  • $begingroup$
    The3 result should be $$ln(2)$$
    $endgroup$
    – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
    Jan 4 at 13:36
















1












$begingroup$


Consider the function $f: (0, infty) to R $



$$ f(x)= begin{cases}
int_{x}^{x^2} frac{dt}{log(t)} & xneq 1 \
l & x=1 \
end{cases}
$$



Determine $l$ such that the function $f$ should be continuous at 1. For the determined value of $l$, is the function differentiable?



I started out by trying to calculate the following limit, however, I had trouble continuing.



$$lim_{xto1}int_{x}^{x^2}frac{mathrm dt}{log(t)}$$



Thank you!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



closed as off-topic by amWhy, RRL, Abcd, jgon, rtybase Jan 4 at 21:13


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – amWhy, RRL, Abcd, jgon, rtybase

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Your integral itself is a very special integral called the Logarithmic Integral. If you were to evaluate the given integral, you would get $ lim_{x to 1 } (Gamma{(0, -ln x)} - Gamma{(0, -2 ln x)} )$
    $endgroup$
    – Tusky
    Jan 4 at 13:32












  • $begingroup$
    The3 result should be $$ln(2)$$
    $endgroup$
    – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
    Jan 4 at 13:36














1












1








1


0



$begingroup$


Consider the function $f: (0, infty) to R $



$$ f(x)= begin{cases}
int_{x}^{x^2} frac{dt}{log(t)} & xneq 1 \
l & x=1 \
end{cases}
$$



Determine $l$ such that the function $f$ should be continuous at 1. For the determined value of $l$, is the function differentiable?



I started out by trying to calculate the following limit, however, I had trouble continuing.



$$lim_{xto1}int_{x}^{x^2}frac{mathrm dt}{log(t)}$$



Thank you!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Consider the function $f: (0, infty) to R $



$$ f(x)= begin{cases}
int_{x}^{x^2} frac{dt}{log(t)} & xneq 1 \
l & x=1 \
end{cases}
$$



Determine $l$ such that the function $f$ should be continuous at 1. For the determined value of $l$, is the function differentiable?



I started out by trying to calculate the following limit, however, I had trouble continuing.



$$lim_{xto1}int_{x}^{x^2}frac{mathrm dt}{log(t)}$$



Thank you!







real-analysis calculus integration definite-integrals






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 4 at 14:05







math1945

















asked Jan 4 at 13:06









math1945math1945

102




102




closed as off-topic by amWhy, RRL, Abcd, jgon, rtybase Jan 4 at 21:13


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – amWhy, RRL, Abcd, jgon, rtybase

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




closed as off-topic by amWhy, RRL, Abcd, jgon, rtybase Jan 4 at 21:13


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – amWhy, RRL, Abcd, jgon, rtybase

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Your integral itself is a very special integral called the Logarithmic Integral. If you were to evaluate the given integral, you would get $ lim_{x to 1 } (Gamma{(0, -ln x)} - Gamma{(0, -2 ln x)} )$
    $endgroup$
    – Tusky
    Jan 4 at 13:32












  • $begingroup$
    The3 result should be $$ln(2)$$
    $endgroup$
    – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
    Jan 4 at 13:36














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Your integral itself is a very special integral called the Logarithmic Integral. If you were to evaluate the given integral, you would get $ lim_{x to 1 } (Gamma{(0, -ln x)} - Gamma{(0, -2 ln x)} )$
    $endgroup$
    – Tusky
    Jan 4 at 13:32












  • $begingroup$
    The3 result should be $$ln(2)$$
    $endgroup$
    – Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
    Jan 4 at 13:36








1




1




$begingroup$
Your integral itself is a very special integral called the Logarithmic Integral. If you were to evaluate the given integral, you would get $ lim_{x to 1 } (Gamma{(0, -ln x)} - Gamma{(0, -2 ln x)} )$
$endgroup$
– Tusky
Jan 4 at 13:32






$begingroup$
Your integral itself is a very special integral called the Logarithmic Integral. If you were to evaluate the given integral, you would get $ lim_{x to 1 } (Gamma{(0, -ln x)} - Gamma{(0, -2 ln x)} )$
$endgroup$
– Tusky
Jan 4 at 13:32














$begingroup$
The3 result should be $$ln(2)$$
$endgroup$
– Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
Jan 4 at 13:36




$begingroup$
The3 result should be $$ln(2)$$
$endgroup$
– Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
Jan 4 at 13:36










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

To calculate the limit itself (and not address the differentiability question)...



Below, consider $x>1$ as fixed, and make (as Tommaso does) the substitution $t = e^s$. Then



$$f(x) = int_x^{x^2} {dt over ln t} = int_{ln x}^{2ln x} {e^sover s}, ds.$$
Make the substitution $s = u ln x$:
$$ f(x) = int^2_1 e^{uln x} {duover u}.$$



As $xdownarrow 1$, we see that
$$ f(x) to int^2_1{duover u}= ln 2.$$
(Bringing the limit inside the integral is valid - by dominated convergence, for instance.)



Addendum/Edit:



1) The same argument works starting with $0<x<1$, and taking $xuparrow 1$.



2) If one sets $f(1) = ln 2$, one has that



$$ f(x) = int^2_1 e^{u ln x} {duover u}$$



identically, for $xin (0,infty)$. So, on condition that you can show that to calculate limits, one can perform the same corresponding calculations on the integrand, you can show that $f$ is differentiable.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    1












    $begingroup$

    First change variables $t = e^s$ and get
    $$ int_{ln(x)}^{ln(x^2)} e^s s^{-1}ds. $$
    Now expand the exponential around zero $e^s = sum_{ngeq 0} s^n/n!$ and pass the series outside the integral as $s^{-1} s^n/n! |_{(ln(x),ln(x^2)}$ converges uniformly to $0$. Pay attention to the first term, as $s^0/0!equiv 1$
    begin{align*} int_{ln(x)}^{ln(x^2)} (1 + sum_{ngeq 1}s^n/n!) s^{-1}ds &= left. ln(s) + sum_{ngeq 1} s^n/(n!n) right|_{ln(x)}^{ln(x^2)} \
    & = ln(ln(x^2)/ln(x)) + sum_{ngeq 1} (2^n-1)ln(x)^n/(n!n).
    end{align*}

    The term on the right goes to zero as $xto 0$ because the series converges absolutely in a right neighborhood of $1$. Therefore
    $$ lim_{xto 1^+} f(x) = lim_{xto 1^+} ln(ln(x^2)/ln(x)) = ln(lim_{xto 1^+} ln(x^2)/ln(x)) = ln(lim_{xto 1^+} x^{-2}2x/(x^{-1}) = ln(2). $$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$




















      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      3












      $begingroup$

      To calculate the limit itself (and not address the differentiability question)...



      Below, consider $x>1$ as fixed, and make (as Tommaso does) the substitution $t = e^s$. Then



      $$f(x) = int_x^{x^2} {dt over ln t} = int_{ln x}^{2ln x} {e^sover s}, ds.$$
      Make the substitution $s = u ln x$:
      $$ f(x) = int^2_1 e^{uln x} {duover u}.$$



      As $xdownarrow 1$, we see that
      $$ f(x) to int^2_1{duover u}= ln 2.$$
      (Bringing the limit inside the integral is valid - by dominated convergence, for instance.)



      Addendum/Edit:



      1) The same argument works starting with $0<x<1$, and taking $xuparrow 1$.



      2) If one sets $f(1) = ln 2$, one has that



      $$ f(x) = int^2_1 e^{u ln x} {duover u}$$



      identically, for $xin (0,infty)$. So, on condition that you can show that to calculate limits, one can perform the same corresponding calculations on the integrand, you can show that $f$ is differentiable.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$


















        3












        $begingroup$

        To calculate the limit itself (and not address the differentiability question)...



        Below, consider $x>1$ as fixed, and make (as Tommaso does) the substitution $t = e^s$. Then



        $$f(x) = int_x^{x^2} {dt over ln t} = int_{ln x}^{2ln x} {e^sover s}, ds.$$
        Make the substitution $s = u ln x$:
        $$ f(x) = int^2_1 e^{uln x} {duover u}.$$



        As $xdownarrow 1$, we see that
        $$ f(x) to int^2_1{duover u}= ln 2.$$
        (Bringing the limit inside the integral is valid - by dominated convergence, for instance.)



        Addendum/Edit:



        1) The same argument works starting with $0<x<1$, and taking $xuparrow 1$.



        2) If one sets $f(1) = ln 2$, one has that



        $$ f(x) = int^2_1 e^{u ln x} {duover u}$$



        identically, for $xin (0,infty)$. So, on condition that you can show that to calculate limits, one can perform the same corresponding calculations on the integrand, you can show that $f$ is differentiable.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$
















          3












          3








          3





          $begingroup$

          To calculate the limit itself (and not address the differentiability question)...



          Below, consider $x>1$ as fixed, and make (as Tommaso does) the substitution $t = e^s$. Then



          $$f(x) = int_x^{x^2} {dt over ln t} = int_{ln x}^{2ln x} {e^sover s}, ds.$$
          Make the substitution $s = u ln x$:
          $$ f(x) = int^2_1 e^{uln x} {duover u}.$$



          As $xdownarrow 1$, we see that
          $$ f(x) to int^2_1{duover u}= ln 2.$$
          (Bringing the limit inside the integral is valid - by dominated convergence, for instance.)



          Addendum/Edit:



          1) The same argument works starting with $0<x<1$, and taking $xuparrow 1$.



          2) If one sets $f(1) = ln 2$, one has that



          $$ f(x) = int^2_1 e^{u ln x} {duover u}$$



          identically, for $xin (0,infty)$. So, on condition that you can show that to calculate limits, one can perform the same corresponding calculations on the integrand, you can show that $f$ is differentiable.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          To calculate the limit itself (and not address the differentiability question)...



          Below, consider $x>1$ as fixed, and make (as Tommaso does) the substitution $t = e^s$. Then



          $$f(x) = int_x^{x^2} {dt over ln t} = int_{ln x}^{2ln x} {e^sover s}, ds.$$
          Make the substitution $s = u ln x$:
          $$ f(x) = int^2_1 e^{uln x} {duover u}.$$



          As $xdownarrow 1$, we see that
          $$ f(x) to int^2_1{duover u}= ln 2.$$
          (Bringing the limit inside the integral is valid - by dominated convergence, for instance.)



          Addendum/Edit:



          1) The same argument works starting with $0<x<1$, and taking $xuparrow 1$.



          2) If one sets $f(1) = ln 2$, one has that



          $$ f(x) = int^2_1 e^{u ln x} {duover u}$$



          identically, for $xin (0,infty)$. So, on condition that you can show that to calculate limits, one can perform the same corresponding calculations on the integrand, you can show that $f$ is differentiable.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jan 4 at 18:23

























          answered Jan 4 at 15:27









          peter a gpeter a g

          3,1001614




          3,1001614























              1












              $begingroup$

              First change variables $t = e^s$ and get
              $$ int_{ln(x)}^{ln(x^2)} e^s s^{-1}ds. $$
              Now expand the exponential around zero $e^s = sum_{ngeq 0} s^n/n!$ and pass the series outside the integral as $s^{-1} s^n/n! |_{(ln(x),ln(x^2)}$ converges uniformly to $0$. Pay attention to the first term, as $s^0/0!equiv 1$
              begin{align*} int_{ln(x)}^{ln(x^2)} (1 + sum_{ngeq 1}s^n/n!) s^{-1}ds &= left. ln(s) + sum_{ngeq 1} s^n/(n!n) right|_{ln(x)}^{ln(x^2)} \
              & = ln(ln(x^2)/ln(x)) + sum_{ngeq 1} (2^n-1)ln(x)^n/(n!n).
              end{align*}

              The term on the right goes to zero as $xto 0$ because the series converges absolutely in a right neighborhood of $1$. Therefore
              $$ lim_{xto 1^+} f(x) = lim_{xto 1^+} ln(ln(x^2)/ln(x)) = ln(lim_{xto 1^+} ln(x^2)/ln(x)) = ln(lim_{xto 1^+} x^{-2}2x/(x^{-1}) = ln(2). $$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                1












                $begingroup$

                First change variables $t = e^s$ and get
                $$ int_{ln(x)}^{ln(x^2)} e^s s^{-1}ds. $$
                Now expand the exponential around zero $e^s = sum_{ngeq 0} s^n/n!$ and pass the series outside the integral as $s^{-1} s^n/n! |_{(ln(x),ln(x^2)}$ converges uniformly to $0$. Pay attention to the first term, as $s^0/0!equiv 1$
                begin{align*} int_{ln(x)}^{ln(x^2)} (1 + sum_{ngeq 1}s^n/n!) s^{-1}ds &= left. ln(s) + sum_{ngeq 1} s^n/(n!n) right|_{ln(x)}^{ln(x^2)} \
                & = ln(ln(x^2)/ln(x)) + sum_{ngeq 1} (2^n-1)ln(x)^n/(n!n).
                end{align*}

                The term on the right goes to zero as $xto 0$ because the series converges absolutely in a right neighborhood of $1$. Therefore
                $$ lim_{xto 1^+} f(x) = lim_{xto 1^+} ln(ln(x^2)/ln(x)) = ln(lim_{xto 1^+} ln(x^2)/ln(x)) = ln(lim_{xto 1^+} x^{-2}2x/(x^{-1}) = ln(2). $$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  First change variables $t = e^s$ and get
                  $$ int_{ln(x)}^{ln(x^2)} e^s s^{-1}ds. $$
                  Now expand the exponential around zero $e^s = sum_{ngeq 0} s^n/n!$ and pass the series outside the integral as $s^{-1} s^n/n! |_{(ln(x),ln(x^2)}$ converges uniformly to $0$. Pay attention to the first term, as $s^0/0!equiv 1$
                  begin{align*} int_{ln(x)}^{ln(x^2)} (1 + sum_{ngeq 1}s^n/n!) s^{-1}ds &= left. ln(s) + sum_{ngeq 1} s^n/(n!n) right|_{ln(x)}^{ln(x^2)} \
                  & = ln(ln(x^2)/ln(x)) + sum_{ngeq 1} (2^n-1)ln(x)^n/(n!n).
                  end{align*}

                  The term on the right goes to zero as $xto 0$ because the series converges absolutely in a right neighborhood of $1$. Therefore
                  $$ lim_{xto 1^+} f(x) = lim_{xto 1^+} ln(ln(x^2)/ln(x)) = ln(lim_{xto 1^+} ln(x^2)/ln(x)) = ln(lim_{xto 1^+} x^{-2}2x/(x^{-1}) = ln(2). $$






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  First change variables $t = e^s$ and get
                  $$ int_{ln(x)}^{ln(x^2)} e^s s^{-1}ds. $$
                  Now expand the exponential around zero $e^s = sum_{ngeq 0} s^n/n!$ and pass the series outside the integral as $s^{-1} s^n/n! |_{(ln(x),ln(x^2)}$ converges uniformly to $0$. Pay attention to the first term, as $s^0/0!equiv 1$
                  begin{align*} int_{ln(x)}^{ln(x^2)} (1 + sum_{ngeq 1}s^n/n!) s^{-1}ds &= left. ln(s) + sum_{ngeq 1} s^n/(n!n) right|_{ln(x)}^{ln(x^2)} \
                  & = ln(ln(x^2)/ln(x)) + sum_{ngeq 1} (2^n-1)ln(x)^n/(n!n).
                  end{align*}

                  The term on the right goes to zero as $xto 0$ because the series converges absolutely in a right neighborhood of $1$. Therefore
                  $$ lim_{xto 1^+} f(x) = lim_{xto 1^+} ln(ln(x^2)/ln(x)) = ln(lim_{xto 1^+} ln(x^2)/ln(x)) = ln(lim_{xto 1^+} x^{-2}2x/(x^{-1}) = ln(2). $$







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                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Jan 4 at 15:16









                  Tommaso SeneciTommaso Seneci

                  99428




                  99428















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