Linear independence of continuous functions in a neighborhood












1














Let $f_{1},f_{2}colonmathbb{R}^{n}tomathbb{R}^{m}$ be two continuous
functions and let $ainmathbb{R}^{n}$ be a point such that $f_{1}left(aright),f_{2}left(aright)$
are linearly independent. That is
$$
gamma_{1}f_{1}left(aright)+gamma_{2}f_{2}left(aright)=0qquadRightarrowqquadgamma_{1}=gamma_{2}=0
$$

I would like to know if there is also a neighborhood of $a$ such
that $f_{1},f_{2}$ are linearly independent there. That is to show
the existence of a $delta>0$ such that for all $xinmathbb{R}^{n}$
with $left|x-aright|<delta$ we get that $f_{1}left(xright),f_{2}left(xright)$
are also linearly independent. Meaning
$$
gamma_{1}f_{1}left(xright)+gamma_{2}f_{2}left(xright)=0qquadRightarrowqquadgamma_{1}=gamma_{2}=0
$$

Is this right? How can I prove it?










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    1














    Let $f_{1},f_{2}colonmathbb{R}^{n}tomathbb{R}^{m}$ be two continuous
    functions and let $ainmathbb{R}^{n}$ be a point such that $f_{1}left(aright),f_{2}left(aright)$
    are linearly independent. That is
    $$
    gamma_{1}f_{1}left(aright)+gamma_{2}f_{2}left(aright)=0qquadRightarrowqquadgamma_{1}=gamma_{2}=0
    $$

    I would like to know if there is also a neighborhood of $a$ such
    that $f_{1},f_{2}$ are linearly independent there. That is to show
    the existence of a $delta>0$ such that for all $xinmathbb{R}^{n}$
    with $left|x-aright|<delta$ we get that $f_{1}left(xright),f_{2}left(xright)$
    are also linearly independent. Meaning
    $$
    gamma_{1}f_{1}left(xright)+gamma_{2}f_{2}left(xright)=0qquadRightarrowqquadgamma_{1}=gamma_{2}=0
    $$

    Is this right? How can I prove it?










    share|cite|improve this question

























      1












      1








      1







      Let $f_{1},f_{2}colonmathbb{R}^{n}tomathbb{R}^{m}$ be two continuous
      functions and let $ainmathbb{R}^{n}$ be a point such that $f_{1}left(aright),f_{2}left(aright)$
      are linearly independent. That is
      $$
      gamma_{1}f_{1}left(aright)+gamma_{2}f_{2}left(aright)=0qquadRightarrowqquadgamma_{1}=gamma_{2}=0
      $$

      I would like to know if there is also a neighborhood of $a$ such
      that $f_{1},f_{2}$ are linearly independent there. That is to show
      the existence of a $delta>0$ such that for all $xinmathbb{R}^{n}$
      with $left|x-aright|<delta$ we get that $f_{1}left(xright),f_{2}left(xright)$
      are also linearly independent. Meaning
      $$
      gamma_{1}f_{1}left(xright)+gamma_{2}f_{2}left(xright)=0qquadRightarrowqquadgamma_{1}=gamma_{2}=0
      $$

      Is this right? How can I prove it?










      share|cite|improve this question













      Let $f_{1},f_{2}colonmathbb{R}^{n}tomathbb{R}^{m}$ be two continuous
      functions and let $ainmathbb{R}^{n}$ be a point such that $f_{1}left(aright),f_{2}left(aright)$
      are linearly independent. That is
      $$
      gamma_{1}f_{1}left(aright)+gamma_{2}f_{2}left(aright)=0qquadRightarrowqquadgamma_{1}=gamma_{2}=0
      $$

      I would like to know if there is also a neighborhood of $a$ such
      that $f_{1},f_{2}$ are linearly independent there. That is to show
      the existence of a $delta>0$ such that for all $xinmathbb{R}^{n}$
      with $left|x-aright|<delta$ we get that $f_{1}left(xright),f_{2}left(xright)$
      are also linearly independent. Meaning
      $$
      gamma_{1}f_{1}left(xright)+gamma_{2}f_{2}left(xright)=0qquadRightarrowqquadgamma_{1}=gamma_{2}=0
      $$

      Is this right? How can I prove it?







      calculus






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      asked Nov 20 '18 at 12:52









      Jon

      557413




      557413






















          2 Answers
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          1














          If $m = 2$:



          consider $$g(x)=det(f_1(x),f_2(x))$$
          Since $g(a) ne 0$, $exists epsilon > 0$ s.t. $0 notin I=]g(a)-epsilon, g(a)+epsilon[$



          Since $I$ is an open set of $mathbb{R}$ and $g$ is continuous, $g^{-1}(I)$ is an open set of $mathbb{R}^n$



          $$forall x in g^{-1}(I), g(x)ne 0 iff f_1(x), f_2(x) text{ independent}$$



          If $m = 1$:



          $f_1(a)$ and $f_2(a)$ cannot be independent



          If $m > 2$:



          There exists $(e_2, .., e_m)$ such that $(f_1(a), f_2(a), e_2, .., e_m)$ is a base of $mathbb{R^m}$



          Consider $$g(x)=det(f_1(x),f_2(x), e_2, .., e_m)$$ and apply the same processus.






          share|cite|improve this answer





























            0














            Just take the Gram-Determinant of $f_1(a)$ and $f_2(a)$, that's here
            $$|f_1(a)|^2|f_2(a)|^2-langle f_1(a),f_2(a)rangle^2$$
            see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gramian_matrix#Gram_determinant. If it's non-zero at $a$, due to continuity it will be non-zero in a neighbourhood of $a$.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















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              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes








              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

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              active

              oldest

              votes









              1














              If $m = 2$:



              consider $$g(x)=det(f_1(x),f_2(x))$$
              Since $g(a) ne 0$, $exists epsilon > 0$ s.t. $0 notin I=]g(a)-epsilon, g(a)+epsilon[$



              Since $I$ is an open set of $mathbb{R}$ and $g$ is continuous, $g^{-1}(I)$ is an open set of $mathbb{R}^n$



              $$forall x in g^{-1}(I), g(x)ne 0 iff f_1(x), f_2(x) text{ independent}$$



              If $m = 1$:



              $f_1(a)$ and $f_2(a)$ cannot be independent



              If $m > 2$:



              There exists $(e_2, .., e_m)$ such that $(f_1(a), f_2(a), e_2, .., e_m)$ is a base of $mathbb{R^m}$



              Consider $$g(x)=det(f_1(x),f_2(x), e_2, .., e_m)$$ and apply the same processus.






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                1














                If $m = 2$:



                consider $$g(x)=det(f_1(x),f_2(x))$$
                Since $g(a) ne 0$, $exists epsilon > 0$ s.t. $0 notin I=]g(a)-epsilon, g(a)+epsilon[$



                Since $I$ is an open set of $mathbb{R}$ and $g$ is continuous, $g^{-1}(I)$ is an open set of $mathbb{R}^n$



                $$forall x in g^{-1}(I), g(x)ne 0 iff f_1(x), f_2(x) text{ independent}$$



                If $m = 1$:



                $f_1(a)$ and $f_2(a)$ cannot be independent



                If $m > 2$:



                There exists $(e_2, .., e_m)$ such that $(f_1(a), f_2(a), e_2, .., e_m)$ is a base of $mathbb{R^m}$



                Consider $$g(x)=det(f_1(x),f_2(x), e_2, .., e_m)$$ and apply the same processus.






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  1












                  1








                  1






                  If $m = 2$:



                  consider $$g(x)=det(f_1(x),f_2(x))$$
                  Since $g(a) ne 0$, $exists epsilon > 0$ s.t. $0 notin I=]g(a)-epsilon, g(a)+epsilon[$



                  Since $I$ is an open set of $mathbb{R}$ and $g$ is continuous, $g^{-1}(I)$ is an open set of $mathbb{R}^n$



                  $$forall x in g^{-1}(I), g(x)ne 0 iff f_1(x), f_2(x) text{ independent}$$



                  If $m = 1$:



                  $f_1(a)$ and $f_2(a)$ cannot be independent



                  If $m > 2$:



                  There exists $(e_2, .., e_m)$ such that $(f_1(a), f_2(a), e_2, .., e_m)$ is a base of $mathbb{R^m}$



                  Consider $$g(x)=det(f_1(x),f_2(x), e_2, .., e_m)$$ and apply the same processus.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  If $m = 2$:



                  consider $$g(x)=det(f_1(x),f_2(x))$$
                  Since $g(a) ne 0$, $exists epsilon > 0$ s.t. $0 notin I=]g(a)-epsilon, g(a)+epsilon[$



                  Since $I$ is an open set of $mathbb{R}$ and $g$ is continuous, $g^{-1}(I)$ is an open set of $mathbb{R}^n$



                  $$forall x in g^{-1}(I), g(x)ne 0 iff f_1(x), f_2(x) text{ independent}$$



                  If $m = 1$:



                  $f_1(a)$ and $f_2(a)$ cannot be independent



                  If $m > 2$:



                  There exists $(e_2, .., e_m)$ such that $(f_1(a), f_2(a), e_2, .., e_m)$ is a base of $mathbb{R^m}$



                  Consider $$g(x)=det(f_1(x),f_2(x), e_2, .., e_m)$$ and apply the same processus.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 20 '18 at 13:45









                  stity

                  3,150513




                  3,150513























                      0














                      Just take the Gram-Determinant of $f_1(a)$ and $f_2(a)$, that's here
                      $$|f_1(a)|^2|f_2(a)|^2-langle f_1(a),f_2(a)rangle^2$$
                      see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gramian_matrix#Gram_determinant. If it's non-zero at $a$, due to continuity it will be non-zero in a neighbourhood of $a$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer


























                        0














                        Just take the Gram-Determinant of $f_1(a)$ and $f_2(a)$, that's here
                        $$|f_1(a)|^2|f_2(a)|^2-langle f_1(a),f_2(a)rangle^2$$
                        see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gramian_matrix#Gram_determinant. If it's non-zero at $a$, due to continuity it will be non-zero in a neighbourhood of $a$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer
























                          0












                          0








                          0






                          Just take the Gram-Determinant of $f_1(a)$ and $f_2(a)$, that's here
                          $$|f_1(a)|^2|f_2(a)|^2-langle f_1(a),f_2(a)rangle^2$$
                          see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gramian_matrix#Gram_determinant. If it's non-zero at $a$, due to continuity it will be non-zero in a neighbourhood of $a$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          Just take the Gram-Determinant of $f_1(a)$ and $f_2(a)$, that's here
                          $$|f_1(a)|^2|f_2(a)|^2-langle f_1(a),f_2(a)rangle^2$$
                          see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gramian_matrix#Gram_determinant. If it's non-zero at $a$, due to continuity it will be non-zero in a neighbourhood of $a$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Nov 20 '18 at 17:29









                          Michael Hoppe

                          10.8k31834




                          10.8k31834






























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