Show that it doesn't exist any homomorphism $phi: mathbb{C} to mathbb{R}^{mathbb{R}}$












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  1. Considering the ring of all of the real functions $ mathbb{R}^{mathbb{R}}$. Show that it doesn't exist any homomorphism $phi: mathbb{C} to mathbb{R}^{mathbb{R}}$

  2. Let $R$ be an integral domain and consider $f:Rto R,,,,$ s.t. $,,,, f(a)=a^2,,,,,forall a in R$. Show that $f$ is injective $iff$ $f$ is a homomorphism.




About 1. any hint on how to show that?



About the point 2.: I have been thinking about that $forall a in R, ,,, f(a) = a^2 = (-a)^2 = f(-a)$ and, assuming $f$ injective, it means $a=-a Rightarrow a + a = 2a =0_R,,,,$ Then: $,,,,,a^2+b^2 = a^2+ (2a)b +b^2=(a+b)^2=f((a+b))=f(a)+f(b)=a^2+b^2,,,,,$



The fact that $R$ is an I.D. gives the product because we can say that $(ab)^2=a^2b^2$, so $f$ is homomorphism. To show that homomorphism implies injectivity do I need only to retrace this demonstration?










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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do your homomorphisms preserve $1$s?
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jan 4 at 2:42
















1












$begingroup$




  1. Considering the ring of all of the real functions $ mathbb{R}^{mathbb{R}}$. Show that it doesn't exist any homomorphism $phi: mathbb{C} to mathbb{R}^{mathbb{R}}$

  2. Let $R$ be an integral domain and consider $f:Rto R,,,,$ s.t. $,,,, f(a)=a^2,,,,,forall a in R$. Show that $f$ is injective $iff$ $f$ is a homomorphism.




About 1. any hint on how to show that?



About the point 2.: I have been thinking about that $forall a in R, ,,, f(a) = a^2 = (-a)^2 = f(-a)$ and, assuming $f$ injective, it means $a=-a Rightarrow a + a = 2a =0_R,,,,$ Then: $,,,,,a^2+b^2 = a^2+ (2a)b +b^2=(a+b)^2=f((a+b))=f(a)+f(b)=a^2+b^2,,,,,$



The fact that $R$ is an I.D. gives the product because we can say that $(ab)^2=a^2b^2$, so $f$ is homomorphism. To show that homomorphism implies injectivity do I need only to retrace this demonstration?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do your homomorphisms preserve $1$s?
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jan 4 at 2:42














1












1








1


1



$begingroup$




  1. Considering the ring of all of the real functions $ mathbb{R}^{mathbb{R}}$. Show that it doesn't exist any homomorphism $phi: mathbb{C} to mathbb{R}^{mathbb{R}}$

  2. Let $R$ be an integral domain and consider $f:Rto R,,,,$ s.t. $,,,, f(a)=a^2,,,,,forall a in R$. Show that $f$ is injective $iff$ $f$ is a homomorphism.




About 1. any hint on how to show that?



About the point 2.: I have been thinking about that $forall a in R, ,,, f(a) = a^2 = (-a)^2 = f(-a)$ and, assuming $f$ injective, it means $a=-a Rightarrow a + a = 2a =0_R,,,,$ Then: $,,,,,a^2+b^2 = a^2+ (2a)b +b^2=(a+b)^2=f((a+b))=f(a)+f(b)=a^2+b^2,,,,,$



The fact that $R$ is an I.D. gives the product because we can say that $(ab)^2=a^2b^2$, so $f$ is homomorphism. To show that homomorphism implies injectivity do I need only to retrace this demonstration?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$






  1. Considering the ring of all of the real functions $ mathbb{R}^{mathbb{R}}$. Show that it doesn't exist any homomorphism $phi: mathbb{C} to mathbb{R}^{mathbb{R}}$

  2. Let $R$ be an integral domain and consider $f:Rto R,,,,$ s.t. $,,,, f(a)=a^2,,,,,forall a in R$. Show that $f$ is injective $iff$ $f$ is a homomorphism.




About 1. any hint on how to show that?



About the point 2.: I have been thinking about that $forall a in R, ,,, f(a) = a^2 = (-a)^2 = f(-a)$ and, assuming $f$ injective, it means $a=-a Rightarrow a + a = 2a =0_R,,,,$ Then: $,,,,,a^2+b^2 = a^2+ (2a)b +b^2=(a+b)^2=f((a+b))=f(a)+f(b)=a^2+b^2,,,,,$



The fact that $R$ is an I.D. gives the product because we can say that $(ab)^2=a^2b^2$, so $f$ is homomorphism. To show that homomorphism implies injectivity do I need only to retrace this demonstration?







abstract-algebra ring-theory






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asked Jan 4 at 1:55









F.incF.inc

394110




394110








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do your homomorphisms preserve $1$s?
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jan 4 at 2:42














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do your homomorphisms preserve $1$s?
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jan 4 at 2:42








1




1




$begingroup$
Do your homomorphisms preserve $1$s?
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 4 at 2:42




$begingroup$
Do your homomorphisms preserve $1$s?
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 4 at 2:42










2 Answers
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  1. You must have $phi(i)^2=-1$ and it is impossible.






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    $begingroup$

    For your other question: if $-1 neq 1$, then $f $ can't be injective since $f(-1) = f(1) = 1$. And if $-1 = 1$, then $2=0$ and so $f$ respects addition as per your calculation.






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      2 Answers
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      2 Answers
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      6












      $begingroup$


      1. You must have $phi(i)^2=-1$ and it is impossible.






      share|cite|improve this answer









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        6












        $begingroup$


        1. You must have $phi(i)^2=-1$ and it is impossible.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          6












          6








          6





          $begingroup$


          1. You must have $phi(i)^2=-1$ and it is impossible.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$




          1. You must have $phi(i)^2=-1$ and it is impossible.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 4 at 2:00









          Tsemo AristideTsemo Aristide

          57k11444




          57k11444























              0












              $begingroup$

              For your other question: if $-1 neq 1$, then $f $ can't be injective since $f(-1) = f(1) = 1$. And if $-1 = 1$, then $2=0$ and so $f$ respects addition as per your calculation.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                0












                $begingroup$

                For your other question: if $-1 neq 1$, then $f $ can't be injective since $f(-1) = f(1) = 1$. And if $-1 = 1$, then $2=0$ and so $f$ respects addition as per your calculation.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  For your other question: if $-1 neq 1$, then $f $ can't be injective since $f(-1) = f(1) = 1$. And if $-1 = 1$, then $2=0$ and so $f$ respects addition as per your calculation.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  For your other question: if $-1 neq 1$, then $f $ can't be injective since $f(-1) = f(1) = 1$. And if $-1 = 1$, then $2=0$ and so $f$ respects addition as per your calculation.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Jan 4 at 2:47









                  hunterhunter

                  14.5k22438




                  14.5k22438






























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