If the images of vectors are linearly dependent, then they are linearly dependent [duplicate]












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  • Can linearly independent vectors have linearly dependent images?

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I know that if the images of vectors are linearly independent, then the vectors are linearly independent. But will the statement still hold if we change independent to dependent? I tried testing with common linear transformations and so far the case holds. Are there any counter examples to it?










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marked as duplicate by Chinnapparaj R, Lord Shark the Unknown, Kelvin Lois, José Carlos Santos linear-algebra
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Nov 22 '18 at 8:28


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.











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    Try a projection.
    – Ramiro de la Vega
    Nov 21 '18 at 19:43
















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This question already has an answer here:




  • Can linearly independent vectors have linearly dependent images?

    2 answers




I know that if the images of vectors are linearly independent, then the vectors are linearly independent. But will the statement still hold if we change independent to dependent? I tried testing with common linear transformations and so far the case holds. Are there any counter examples to it?










share|cite|improve this question













marked as duplicate by Chinnapparaj R, Lord Shark the Unknown, Kelvin Lois, José Carlos Santos linear-algebra
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Nov 22 '18 at 8:28


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.











  • 3




    Try a projection.
    – Ramiro de la Vega
    Nov 21 '18 at 19:43














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0








This question already has an answer here:




  • Can linearly independent vectors have linearly dependent images?

    2 answers




I know that if the images of vectors are linearly independent, then the vectors are linearly independent. But will the statement still hold if we change independent to dependent? I tried testing with common linear transformations and so far the case holds. Are there any counter examples to it?










share|cite|improve this question














This question already has an answer here:




  • Can linearly independent vectors have linearly dependent images?

    2 answers




I know that if the images of vectors are linearly independent, then the vectors are linearly independent. But will the statement still hold if we change independent to dependent? I tried testing with common linear transformations and so far the case holds. Are there any counter examples to it?





This question already has an answer here:




  • Can linearly independent vectors have linearly dependent images?

    2 answers








linear-algebra linear-transformations






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asked Nov 21 '18 at 19:39









user161872user161872

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marked as duplicate by Chinnapparaj R, Lord Shark the Unknown, Kelvin Lois, José Carlos Santos linear-algebra
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Nov 22 '18 at 8:28


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.






marked as duplicate by Chinnapparaj R, Lord Shark the Unknown, Kelvin Lois, José Carlos Santos linear-algebra
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Nov 22 '18 at 8:28


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.










  • 3




    Try a projection.
    – Ramiro de la Vega
    Nov 21 '18 at 19:43














  • 3




    Try a projection.
    – Ramiro de la Vega
    Nov 21 '18 at 19:43








3




3




Try a projection.
– Ramiro de la Vega
Nov 21 '18 at 19:43




Try a projection.
– Ramiro de la Vega
Nov 21 '18 at 19:43










1 Answer
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No. Take $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ given by $f(x)=0$. Then ${f(1)} = {0}$ is linearly dependent, but ${1}$ is linearly independent.






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    1 Answer
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    1 Answer
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    No. Take $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ given by $f(x)=0$. Then ${f(1)} = {0}$ is linearly dependent, but ${1}$ is linearly independent.






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      0














      No. Take $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ given by $f(x)=0$. Then ${f(1)} = {0}$ is linearly dependent, but ${1}$ is linearly independent.






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        0






        No. Take $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ given by $f(x)=0$. Then ${f(1)} = {0}$ is linearly dependent, but ${1}$ is linearly independent.






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        No. Take $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ given by $f(x)=0$. Then ${f(1)} = {0}$ is linearly dependent, but ${1}$ is linearly independent.







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        answered Nov 21 '18 at 19:43









        FedericoFederico

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        4,829514















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