Existence of Dirichlet Inverse.












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How do we show the existence of the Dirichlet Inverse of a function $f$? I know using induction that we can find a recursive form of $f^{-1}$. But I can't seem to show the existence. Any ideas?
Most sites I have searched assume the existence before giving a recursive formula.










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  • $begingroup$
    Iff $f(1) ne 1$ then $f^{-1}$ exists. Replace $f(n)$ by $f(n)/f(1)$ to obtain $f(1)=f^{-1}(1)= 1$. Then for $n ge 2, sum_{d | n} f^{-1}(n/d) f(d) = 0 implies f^{-1}(n) = -sum_{d |n, d > 1} f^{-1}(n/d) f(d)$ the latter being a well-defined induction formula. Equivalently you can look at $frac{1}{F(s)}= sum_{k=0}^infty (1-F(s))^k$ the latter being convergent in the ring of formal Dirichlet series.
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Jan 23 at 16:33


















0












$begingroup$


How do we show the existence of the Dirichlet Inverse of a function $f$? I know using induction that we can find a recursive form of $f^{-1}$. But I can't seem to show the existence. Any ideas?
Most sites I have searched assume the existence before giving a recursive formula.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Iff $f(1) ne 1$ then $f^{-1}$ exists. Replace $f(n)$ by $f(n)/f(1)$ to obtain $f(1)=f^{-1}(1)= 1$. Then for $n ge 2, sum_{d | n} f^{-1}(n/d) f(d) = 0 implies f^{-1}(n) = -sum_{d |n, d > 1} f^{-1}(n/d) f(d)$ the latter being a well-defined induction formula. Equivalently you can look at $frac{1}{F(s)}= sum_{k=0}^infty (1-F(s))^k$ the latter being convergent in the ring of formal Dirichlet series.
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Jan 23 at 16:33
















0












0








0





$begingroup$


How do we show the existence of the Dirichlet Inverse of a function $f$? I know using induction that we can find a recursive form of $f^{-1}$. But I can't seem to show the existence. Any ideas?
Most sites I have searched assume the existence before giving a recursive formula.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




How do we show the existence of the Dirichlet Inverse of a function $f$? I know using induction that we can find a recursive form of $f^{-1}$. But I can't seem to show the existence. Any ideas?
Most sites I have searched assume the existence before giving a recursive formula.







analytic-number-theory






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share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Jan 23 at 13:05









Jhon DoeJhon Doe

642314




642314












  • $begingroup$
    Iff $f(1) ne 1$ then $f^{-1}$ exists. Replace $f(n)$ by $f(n)/f(1)$ to obtain $f(1)=f^{-1}(1)= 1$. Then for $n ge 2, sum_{d | n} f^{-1}(n/d) f(d) = 0 implies f^{-1}(n) = -sum_{d |n, d > 1} f^{-1}(n/d) f(d)$ the latter being a well-defined induction formula. Equivalently you can look at $frac{1}{F(s)}= sum_{k=0}^infty (1-F(s))^k$ the latter being convergent in the ring of formal Dirichlet series.
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Jan 23 at 16:33




















  • $begingroup$
    Iff $f(1) ne 1$ then $f^{-1}$ exists. Replace $f(n)$ by $f(n)/f(1)$ to obtain $f(1)=f^{-1}(1)= 1$. Then for $n ge 2, sum_{d | n} f^{-1}(n/d) f(d) = 0 implies f^{-1}(n) = -sum_{d |n, d > 1} f^{-1}(n/d) f(d)$ the latter being a well-defined induction formula. Equivalently you can look at $frac{1}{F(s)}= sum_{k=0}^infty (1-F(s))^k$ the latter being convergent in the ring of formal Dirichlet series.
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Jan 23 at 16:33


















$begingroup$
Iff $f(1) ne 1$ then $f^{-1}$ exists. Replace $f(n)$ by $f(n)/f(1)$ to obtain $f(1)=f^{-1}(1)= 1$. Then for $n ge 2, sum_{d | n} f^{-1}(n/d) f(d) = 0 implies f^{-1}(n) = -sum_{d |n, d > 1} f^{-1}(n/d) f(d)$ the latter being a well-defined induction formula. Equivalently you can look at $frac{1}{F(s)}= sum_{k=0}^infty (1-F(s))^k$ the latter being convergent in the ring of formal Dirichlet series.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Jan 23 at 16:33






$begingroup$
Iff $f(1) ne 1$ then $f^{-1}$ exists. Replace $f(n)$ by $f(n)/f(1)$ to obtain $f(1)=f^{-1}(1)= 1$. Then for $n ge 2, sum_{d | n} f^{-1}(n/d) f(d) = 0 implies f^{-1}(n) = -sum_{d |n, d > 1} f^{-1}(n/d) f(d)$ the latter being a well-defined induction formula. Equivalently you can look at $frac{1}{F(s)}= sum_{k=0}^infty (1-F(s))^k$ the latter being convergent in the ring of formal Dirichlet series.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Jan 23 at 16:33












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