Is it useful to convert a higher order PDE into a 1st order system?












2












$begingroup$


I just learned how a higher order PDE can be converted into a system of PDEs.I am just wondering whether this is a standard way to solve some higher order PDEs which are immune to other methods or is it more efficient?










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    2












    $begingroup$


    I just learned how a higher order PDE can be converted into a system of PDEs.I am just wondering whether this is a standard way to solve some higher order PDEs which are immune to other methods or is it more efficient?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      I just learned how a higher order PDE can be converted into a system of PDEs.I am just wondering whether this is a standard way to solve some higher order PDEs which are immune to other methods or is it more efficient?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I just learned how a higher order PDE can be converted into a system of PDEs.I am just wondering whether this is a standard way to solve some higher order PDEs which are immune to other methods or is it more efficient?







      pde linear-pde parabolic-pde






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      share|cite|improve this question













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      edited Jan 23 at 13:53







      ben tenyson

















      asked Jan 23 at 13:28









      ben tenysonben tenyson

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      414






















          3 Answers
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          $begingroup$

          In addition to @GiuseppeNegro's answer, it has several advantages to convert a high-order PDE into a first-order system, e.g. a system of the form $boldsymbol{u}_t + boldsymbol{f}(boldsymbol{u})_x = boldsymbol{r}(boldsymbol{u})$.




          1. For some particular linear hyperbolic systems, we may be able to decouple the equations, so that the method of characteristics can be used to solve initial- and boundary-value problems.

          2. For some particular hyperbolic systems, we may be able to derive an analytical solution to the Riemann problem (a particular initial-value problem).

          3. We may be able to exploit theoretical results available for this kind of system (existence, uniqueness, smoothness).

          4. We can make use of well-suited numerical methods, such as finite-volume methods of Godunov type.


          However, not every higher-order PDE can be written in the previous form.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$





















            3












            $begingroup$

            This is connected to the Hamiltonian formalism, and is also done in PDEs sometimes. I am far from being an expert, so let me just present the case of the wave equation $u_{tt} = Delta u$. Introduce the two-component vector (position-momentum):
            $$
            boldsymbol{u}:=begin{bmatrix} u \ u_tend{bmatrix}.$$

            Then the wave equation is rewritten as
            $$
            partial_t boldsymbol{u} = J H boldsymbol{u},qquad J=begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 \ -1 & 0 end{bmatrix}, qquad H=begin{bmatrix} -Delta & 0 \ 0 & 1 end{bmatrix}.$$



            Is this useful? Well, to begin with, it lets the abstract theory of semigroups come into play. (That theory is the generalization to the infinite-dimensional case of the equation $dot{x}= A x$, where $A$ is replaced with a linear operator on some Banach space). It also reveals a conservation law; if $boldsymbol{u}$ solves the wave equation then
            $$
            begin{split}
            partial_t langle Hboldsymbol{u}(t), boldsymbol{u}(t)rangle &= langle HJHboldsymbol{u}| boldsymbol{u}rangle + langle Hboldsymbol{u}|JHboldsymbol{u}rangle \ &= -langle Hboldsymbol{u}|JHboldsymbol{u}rangle + langle Hboldsymbol{u}|JHboldsymbol{u}rangle =0,
            end{split}
            $$

            where
            $$
            langle (f_1, g_1) |(f_2, g_2)rangle:= int f_1f_2 + int g_1g_2,$$

            and where we used the fact that $H$ is a symmetric operator, while $J$ is an anti-symmetric one. We have thus shown that
            $$
            langle H boldsymbol{u}|boldsymbol{u}rangle=int -Delta u, u + int u_t^2
            $$

            is constant along the wave flow, which is a fundamental fact known as conservation of energy. (The first summand equals $int |nabla u|^2$, which is how it usually appears).



            This is all very basic, but already shows that, sometimes, this kind of manipulation can be useful.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$





















              1












              $begingroup$

              It's not clear to me how this would work for PDE's. For ODE's:



              Yes, any higher-order ODE is equivalent to a system of first-order ODE's. For example $$y''=f(y,y',t)$$is equivalent to the system $$y_1'=y_2, y_2'=f(y_1,y_2,t).$$I don't know that this is important for solving ODE's, but it's certainly useful in proving things about them. Because that system of two ODE"s is just $$Y'=F(Y,t)$$for a suitable $F$, where $Y=(y_1,y_2)$. Proofs of things for ODE's often work just as well for "vector-valued" ODE's, which then have corollaries for higher-order (scalar-valued) ODE's. Hmm, I suppose the same holds for numerical methods for approximate solutions.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$













              • $begingroup$
                They do this in evolution PDEs also, when they are interpreted as infinite-dimensional ODEs. (It can get messy, though...)
                $endgroup$
                – Giuseppe Negro
                Jan 23 at 15:46










              • $begingroup$
                This downvote (without explanation) is unfair. The question has been substantially edited after this answer.
                $endgroup$
                – Giuseppe Negro
                Jan 23 at 18:42













              Your Answer





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              3 Answers
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              3 Answers
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              $begingroup$

              In addition to @GiuseppeNegro's answer, it has several advantages to convert a high-order PDE into a first-order system, e.g. a system of the form $boldsymbol{u}_t + boldsymbol{f}(boldsymbol{u})_x = boldsymbol{r}(boldsymbol{u})$.




              1. For some particular linear hyperbolic systems, we may be able to decouple the equations, so that the method of characteristics can be used to solve initial- and boundary-value problems.

              2. For some particular hyperbolic systems, we may be able to derive an analytical solution to the Riemann problem (a particular initial-value problem).

              3. We may be able to exploit theoretical results available for this kind of system (existence, uniqueness, smoothness).

              4. We can make use of well-suited numerical methods, such as finite-volume methods of Godunov type.


              However, not every higher-order PDE can be written in the previous form.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$


















                3












                $begingroup$

                In addition to @GiuseppeNegro's answer, it has several advantages to convert a high-order PDE into a first-order system, e.g. a system of the form $boldsymbol{u}_t + boldsymbol{f}(boldsymbol{u})_x = boldsymbol{r}(boldsymbol{u})$.




                1. For some particular linear hyperbolic systems, we may be able to decouple the equations, so that the method of characteristics can be used to solve initial- and boundary-value problems.

                2. For some particular hyperbolic systems, we may be able to derive an analytical solution to the Riemann problem (a particular initial-value problem).

                3. We may be able to exploit theoretical results available for this kind of system (existence, uniqueness, smoothness).

                4. We can make use of well-suited numerical methods, such as finite-volume methods of Godunov type.


                However, not every higher-order PDE can be written in the previous form.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$
















                  3












                  3








                  3





                  $begingroup$

                  In addition to @GiuseppeNegro's answer, it has several advantages to convert a high-order PDE into a first-order system, e.g. a system of the form $boldsymbol{u}_t + boldsymbol{f}(boldsymbol{u})_x = boldsymbol{r}(boldsymbol{u})$.




                  1. For some particular linear hyperbolic systems, we may be able to decouple the equations, so that the method of characteristics can be used to solve initial- and boundary-value problems.

                  2. For some particular hyperbolic systems, we may be able to derive an analytical solution to the Riemann problem (a particular initial-value problem).

                  3. We may be able to exploit theoretical results available for this kind of system (existence, uniqueness, smoothness).

                  4. We can make use of well-suited numerical methods, such as finite-volume methods of Godunov type.


                  However, not every higher-order PDE can be written in the previous form.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  In addition to @GiuseppeNegro's answer, it has several advantages to convert a high-order PDE into a first-order system, e.g. a system of the form $boldsymbol{u}_t + boldsymbol{f}(boldsymbol{u})_x = boldsymbol{r}(boldsymbol{u})$.




                  1. For some particular linear hyperbolic systems, we may be able to decouple the equations, so that the method of characteristics can be used to solve initial- and boundary-value problems.

                  2. For some particular hyperbolic systems, we may be able to derive an analytical solution to the Riemann problem (a particular initial-value problem).

                  3. We may be able to exploit theoretical results available for this kind of system (existence, uniqueness, smoothness).

                  4. We can make use of well-suited numerical methods, such as finite-volume methods of Godunov type.


                  However, not every higher-order PDE can be written in the previous form.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Jan 23 at 16:30

























                  answered Jan 23 at 16:24









                  Harry49Harry49

                  7,52431341




                  7,52431341























                      3












                      $begingroup$

                      This is connected to the Hamiltonian formalism, and is also done in PDEs sometimes. I am far from being an expert, so let me just present the case of the wave equation $u_{tt} = Delta u$. Introduce the two-component vector (position-momentum):
                      $$
                      boldsymbol{u}:=begin{bmatrix} u \ u_tend{bmatrix}.$$

                      Then the wave equation is rewritten as
                      $$
                      partial_t boldsymbol{u} = J H boldsymbol{u},qquad J=begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 \ -1 & 0 end{bmatrix}, qquad H=begin{bmatrix} -Delta & 0 \ 0 & 1 end{bmatrix}.$$



                      Is this useful? Well, to begin with, it lets the abstract theory of semigroups come into play. (That theory is the generalization to the infinite-dimensional case of the equation $dot{x}= A x$, where $A$ is replaced with a linear operator on some Banach space). It also reveals a conservation law; if $boldsymbol{u}$ solves the wave equation then
                      $$
                      begin{split}
                      partial_t langle Hboldsymbol{u}(t), boldsymbol{u}(t)rangle &= langle HJHboldsymbol{u}| boldsymbol{u}rangle + langle Hboldsymbol{u}|JHboldsymbol{u}rangle \ &= -langle Hboldsymbol{u}|JHboldsymbol{u}rangle + langle Hboldsymbol{u}|JHboldsymbol{u}rangle =0,
                      end{split}
                      $$

                      where
                      $$
                      langle (f_1, g_1) |(f_2, g_2)rangle:= int f_1f_2 + int g_1g_2,$$

                      and where we used the fact that $H$ is a symmetric operator, while $J$ is an anti-symmetric one. We have thus shown that
                      $$
                      langle H boldsymbol{u}|boldsymbol{u}rangle=int -Delta u, u + int u_t^2
                      $$

                      is constant along the wave flow, which is a fundamental fact known as conservation of energy. (The first summand equals $int |nabla u|^2$, which is how it usually appears).



                      This is all very basic, but already shows that, sometimes, this kind of manipulation can be useful.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        3












                        $begingroup$

                        This is connected to the Hamiltonian formalism, and is also done in PDEs sometimes. I am far from being an expert, so let me just present the case of the wave equation $u_{tt} = Delta u$. Introduce the two-component vector (position-momentum):
                        $$
                        boldsymbol{u}:=begin{bmatrix} u \ u_tend{bmatrix}.$$

                        Then the wave equation is rewritten as
                        $$
                        partial_t boldsymbol{u} = J H boldsymbol{u},qquad J=begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 \ -1 & 0 end{bmatrix}, qquad H=begin{bmatrix} -Delta & 0 \ 0 & 1 end{bmatrix}.$$



                        Is this useful? Well, to begin with, it lets the abstract theory of semigroups come into play. (That theory is the generalization to the infinite-dimensional case of the equation $dot{x}= A x$, where $A$ is replaced with a linear operator on some Banach space). It also reveals a conservation law; if $boldsymbol{u}$ solves the wave equation then
                        $$
                        begin{split}
                        partial_t langle Hboldsymbol{u}(t), boldsymbol{u}(t)rangle &= langle HJHboldsymbol{u}| boldsymbol{u}rangle + langle Hboldsymbol{u}|JHboldsymbol{u}rangle \ &= -langle Hboldsymbol{u}|JHboldsymbol{u}rangle + langle Hboldsymbol{u}|JHboldsymbol{u}rangle =0,
                        end{split}
                        $$

                        where
                        $$
                        langle (f_1, g_1) |(f_2, g_2)rangle:= int f_1f_2 + int g_1g_2,$$

                        and where we used the fact that $H$ is a symmetric operator, while $J$ is an anti-symmetric one. We have thus shown that
                        $$
                        langle H boldsymbol{u}|boldsymbol{u}rangle=int -Delta u, u + int u_t^2
                        $$

                        is constant along the wave flow, which is a fundamental fact known as conservation of energy. (The first summand equals $int |nabla u|^2$, which is how it usually appears).



                        This is all very basic, but already shows that, sometimes, this kind of manipulation can be useful.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          3












                          3








                          3





                          $begingroup$

                          This is connected to the Hamiltonian formalism, and is also done in PDEs sometimes. I am far from being an expert, so let me just present the case of the wave equation $u_{tt} = Delta u$. Introduce the two-component vector (position-momentum):
                          $$
                          boldsymbol{u}:=begin{bmatrix} u \ u_tend{bmatrix}.$$

                          Then the wave equation is rewritten as
                          $$
                          partial_t boldsymbol{u} = J H boldsymbol{u},qquad J=begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 \ -1 & 0 end{bmatrix}, qquad H=begin{bmatrix} -Delta & 0 \ 0 & 1 end{bmatrix}.$$



                          Is this useful? Well, to begin with, it lets the abstract theory of semigroups come into play. (That theory is the generalization to the infinite-dimensional case of the equation $dot{x}= A x$, where $A$ is replaced with a linear operator on some Banach space). It also reveals a conservation law; if $boldsymbol{u}$ solves the wave equation then
                          $$
                          begin{split}
                          partial_t langle Hboldsymbol{u}(t), boldsymbol{u}(t)rangle &= langle HJHboldsymbol{u}| boldsymbol{u}rangle + langle Hboldsymbol{u}|JHboldsymbol{u}rangle \ &= -langle Hboldsymbol{u}|JHboldsymbol{u}rangle + langle Hboldsymbol{u}|JHboldsymbol{u}rangle =0,
                          end{split}
                          $$

                          where
                          $$
                          langle (f_1, g_1) |(f_2, g_2)rangle:= int f_1f_2 + int g_1g_2,$$

                          and where we used the fact that $H$ is a symmetric operator, while $J$ is an anti-symmetric one. We have thus shown that
                          $$
                          langle H boldsymbol{u}|boldsymbol{u}rangle=int -Delta u, u + int u_t^2
                          $$

                          is constant along the wave flow, which is a fundamental fact known as conservation of energy. (The first summand equals $int |nabla u|^2$, which is how it usually appears).



                          This is all very basic, but already shows that, sometimes, this kind of manipulation can be useful.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          This is connected to the Hamiltonian formalism, and is also done in PDEs sometimes. I am far from being an expert, so let me just present the case of the wave equation $u_{tt} = Delta u$. Introduce the two-component vector (position-momentum):
                          $$
                          boldsymbol{u}:=begin{bmatrix} u \ u_tend{bmatrix}.$$

                          Then the wave equation is rewritten as
                          $$
                          partial_t boldsymbol{u} = J H boldsymbol{u},qquad J=begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 \ -1 & 0 end{bmatrix}, qquad H=begin{bmatrix} -Delta & 0 \ 0 & 1 end{bmatrix}.$$



                          Is this useful? Well, to begin with, it lets the abstract theory of semigroups come into play. (That theory is the generalization to the infinite-dimensional case of the equation $dot{x}= A x$, where $A$ is replaced with a linear operator on some Banach space). It also reveals a conservation law; if $boldsymbol{u}$ solves the wave equation then
                          $$
                          begin{split}
                          partial_t langle Hboldsymbol{u}(t), boldsymbol{u}(t)rangle &= langle HJHboldsymbol{u}| boldsymbol{u}rangle + langle Hboldsymbol{u}|JHboldsymbol{u}rangle \ &= -langle Hboldsymbol{u}|JHboldsymbol{u}rangle + langle Hboldsymbol{u}|JHboldsymbol{u}rangle =0,
                          end{split}
                          $$

                          where
                          $$
                          langle (f_1, g_1) |(f_2, g_2)rangle:= int f_1f_2 + int g_1g_2,$$

                          and where we used the fact that $H$ is a symmetric operator, while $J$ is an anti-symmetric one. We have thus shown that
                          $$
                          langle H boldsymbol{u}|boldsymbol{u}rangle=int -Delta u, u + int u_t^2
                          $$

                          is constant along the wave flow, which is a fundamental fact known as conservation of energy. (The first summand equals $int |nabla u|^2$, which is how it usually appears).



                          This is all very basic, but already shows that, sometimes, this kind of manipulation can be useful.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Jan 23 at 15:30









                          Giuseppe NegroGiuseppe Negro

                          17.4k332126




                          17.4k332126























                              1












                              $begingroup$

                              It's not clear to me how this would work for PDE's. For ODE's:



                              Yes, any higher-order ODE is equivalent to a system of first-order ODE's. For example $$y''=f(y,y',t)$$is equivalent to the system $$y_1'=y_2, y_2'=f(y_1,y_2,t).$$I don't know that this is important for solving ODE's, but it's certainly useful in proving things about them. Because that system of two ODE"s is just $$Y'=F(Y,t)$$for a suitable $F$, where $Y=(y_1,y_2)$. Proofs of things for ODE's often work just as well for "vector-valued" ODE's, which then have corollaries for higher-order (scalar-valued) ODE's. Hmm, I suppose the same holds for numerical methods for approximate solutions.






                              share|cite|improve this answer









                              $endgroup$













                              • $begingroup$
                                They do this in evolution PDEs also, when they are interpreted as infinite-dimensional ODEs. (It can get messy, though...)
                                $endgroup$
                                – Giuseppe Negro
                                Jan 23 at 15:46










                              • $begingroup$
                                This downvote (without explanation) is unfair. The question has been substantially edited after this answer.
                                $endgroup$
                                – Giuseppe Negro
                                Jan 23 at 18:42


















                              1












                              $begingroup$

                              It's not clear to me how this would work for PDE's. For ODE's:



                              Yes, any higher-order ODE is equivalent to a system of first-order ODE's. For example $$y''=f(y,y',t)$$is equivalent to the system $$y_1'=y_2, y_2'=f(y_1,y_2,t).$$I don't know that this is important for solving ODE's, but it's certainly useful in proving things about them. Because that system of two ODE"s is just $$Y'=F(Y,t)$$for a suitable $F$, where $Y=(y_1,y_2)$. Proofs of things for ODE's often work just as well for "vector-valued" ODE's, which then have corollaries for higher-order (scalar-valued) ODE's. Hmm, I suppose the same holds for numerical methods for approximate solutions.






                              share|cite|improve this answer









                              $endgroup$













                              • $begingroup$
                                They do this in evolution PDEs also, when they are interpreted as infinite-dimensional ODEs. (It can get messy, though...)
                                $endgroup$
                                – Giuseppe Negro
                                Jan 23 at 15:46










                              • $begingroup$
                                This downvote (without explanation) is unfair. The question has been substantially edited after this answer.
                                $endgroup$
                                – Giuseppe Negro
                                Jan 23 at 18:42
















                              1












                              1








                              1





                              $begingroup$

                              It's not clear to me how this would work for PDE's. For ODE's:



                              Yes, any higher-order ODE is equivalent to a system of first-order ODE's. For example $$y''=f(y,y',t)$$is equivalent to the system $$y_1'=y_2, y_2'=f(y_1,y_2,t).$$I don't know that this is important for solving ODE's, but it's certainly useful in proving things about them. Because that system of two ODE"s is just $$Y'=F(Y,t)$$for a suitable $F$, where $Y=(y_1,y_2)$. Proofs of things for ODE's often work just as well for "vector-valued" ODE's, which then have corollaries for higher-order (scalar-valued) ODE's. Hmm, I suppose the same holds for numerical methods for approximate solutions.






                              share|cite|improve this answer









                              $endgroup$



                              It's not clear to me how this would work for PDE's. For ODE's:



                              Yes, any higher-order ODE is equivalent to a system of first-order ODE's. For example $$y''=f(y,y',t)$$is equivalent to the system $$y_1'=y_2, y_2'=f(y_1,y_2,t).$$I don't know that this is important for solving ODE's, but it's certainly useful in proving things about them. Because that system of two ODE"s is just $$Y'=F(Y,t)$$for a suitable $F$, where $Y=(y_1,y_2)$. Proofs of things for ODE's often work just as well for "vector-valued" ODE's, which then have corollaries for higher-order (scalar-valued) ODE's. Hmm, I suppose the same holds for numerical methods for approximate solutions.







                              share|cite|improve this answer












                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer










                              answered Jan 23 at 15:03









                              David C. UllrichDavid C. Ullrich

                              61.2k43994




                              61.2k43994












                              • $begingroup$
                                They do this in evolution PDEs also, when they are interpreted as infinite-dimensional ODEs. (It can get messy, though...)
                                $endgroup$
                                – Giuseppe Negro
                                Jan 23 at 15:46










                              • $begingroup$
                                This downvote (without explanation) is unfair. The question has been substantially edited after this answer.
                                $endgroup$
                                – Giuseppe Negro
                                Jan 23 at 18:42




















                              • $begingroup$
                                They do this in evolution PDEs also, when they are interpreted as infinite-dimensional ODEs. (It can get messy, though...)
                                $endgroup$
                                – Giuseppe Negro
                                Jan 23 at 15:46










                              • $begingroup$
                                This downvote (without explanation) is unfair. The question has been substantially edited after this answer.
                                $endgroup$
                                – Giuseppe Negro
                                Jan 23 at 18:42


















                              $begingroup$
                              They do this in evolution PDEs also, when they are interpreted as infinite-dimensional ODEs. (It can get messy, though...)
                              $endgroup$
                              – Giuseppe Negro
                              Jan 23 at 15:46




                              $begingroup$
                              They do this in evolution PDEs also, when they are interpreted as infinite-dimensional ODEs. (It can get messy, though...)
                              $endgroup$
                              – Giuseppe Negro
                              Jan 23 at 15:46












                              $begingroup$
                              This downvote (without explanation) is unfair. The question has been substantially edited after this answer.
                              $endgroup$
                              – Giuseppe Negro
                              Jan 23 at 18:42






                              $begingroup$
                              This downvote (without explanation) is unfair. The question has been substantially edited after this answer.
                              $endgroup$
                              – Giuseppe Negro
                              Jan 23 at 18:42




















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