Maximal ideal of $K[x_1,cdots,x_n]$ such that the quotient field equals to $K$











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I was wondering whether a maximal ideals of $K[x_1,cdots,x_n]$ such that the quotient field equals to $K$ must be the form of $(x_1-a_1,cdots,x_n-a_n)$? Here $K$ is not necessary to be algebraically closed.



I tried to consider the Zariski's lemma, if $mathfrak m$ is a maximal ideal of finitely generated $K$-algebra $A$, then $A/mathfrak m$ is a finite extension of $K$. But I don't know the degree $[A/mathfrak m:K]=1$ means what?










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    up vote
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    favorite
    4












    I was wondering whether a maximal ideals of $K[x_1,cdots,x_n]$ such that the quotient field equals to $K$ must be the form of $(x_1-a_1,cdots,x_n-a_n)$? Here $K$ is not necessary to be algebraically closed.



    I tried to consider the Zariski's lemma, if $mathfrak m$ is a maximal ideal of finitely generated $K$-algebra $A$, then $A/mathfrak m$ is a finite extension of $K$. But I don't know the degree $[A/mathfrak m:K]=1$ means what?










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      5
      down vote

      favorite
      4









      up vote
      5
      down vote

      favorite
      4






      4





      I was wondering whether a maximal ideals of $K[x_1,cdots,x_n]$ such that the quotient field equals to $K$ must be the form of $(x_1-a_1,cdots,x_n-a_n)$? Here $K$ is not necessary to be algebraically closed.



      I tried to consider the Zariski's lemma, if $mathfrak m$ is a maximal ideal of finitely generated $K$-algebra $A$, then $A/mathfrak m$ is a finite extension of $K$. But I don't know the degree $[A/mathfrak m:K]=1$ means what?










      share|cite|improve this question













      I was wondering whether a maximal ideals of $K[x_1,cdots,x_n]$ such that the quotient field equals to $K$ must be the form of $(x_1-a_1,cdots,x_n-a_n)$? Here $K$ is not necessary to be algebraically closed.



      I tried to consider the Zariski's lemma, if $mathfrak m$ is a maximal ideal of finitely generated $K$-algebra $A$, then $A/mathfrak m$ is a finite extension of $K$. But I don't know the degree $[A/mathfrak m:K]=1$ means what?







      abstract-algebra algebraic-geometry commutative-algebra






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      asked 2 days ago









      user8891548

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          2 Answers
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          It depends on what you mean by "equal". A field can be isomorphic to a non-trivial finite extension of itself, e.g. $mathbb{C}(Y^2) cong mathbb{C}(Y)$, so the residue field being isomorphic to $K$ is not a strong enough condition. Concretely, a counterexample is given by $(X^2 - Y^2) subset mathbb{C}(Y^2)[X]$, a maximal ideal with quotient field $mathbb{C}(Y)$.



          However, if the quotient $K[X_1, ldots , X_n] / mathfrak{m}$ is actually isomorphic to $K$ as a $K$-algebra, then, if $a_i$ denotes the image of $X_i$ in $K$, it is easy to see that $X_i - a_i$ lies in $mathfrak{m}$ for each $i$, and therefore $mathfrak{m} = (X_1-a_1, ldots , X_n - a_n)$.






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            I can give a positive answer when $k$ is algebraically closed.



            From the Hilbert Nulstellensatz, we know that



            $$k^n to {mathrm{maximal ideals in k[X_1, dots, X_n]}}: (a_1, dots, a_n) mapsto I({a_1, dots, a_n}) = (X_1-a_1, dots, X_n-a_n)$$ is a bijection and the result readily follows.



            See also: basic question on maximal ideals in $K[X_1,...,X_n]$






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              Your Answer





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              2 Answers
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              2 Answers
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              active

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              up vote
              6
              down vote













              It depends on what you mean by "equal". A field can be isomorphic to a non-trivial finite extension of itself, e.g. $mathbb{C}(Y^2) cong mathbb{C}(Y)$, so the residue field being isomorphic to $K$ is not a strong enough condition. Concretely, a counterexample is given by $(X^2 - Y^2) subset mathbb{C}(Y^2)[X]$, a maximal ideal with quotient field $mathbb{C}(Y)$.



              However, if the quotient $K[X_1, ldots , X_n] / mathfrak{m}$ is actually isomorphic to $K$ as a $K$-algebra, then, if $a_i$ denotes the image of $X_i$ in $K$, it is easy to see that $X_i - a_i$ lies in $mathfrak{m}$ for each $i$, and therefore $mathfrak{m} = (X_1-a_1, ldots , X_n - a_n)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                6
                down vote













                It depends on what you mean by "equal". A field can be isomorphic to a non-trivial finite extension of itself, e.g. $mathbb{C}(Y^2) cong mathbb{C}(Y)$, so the residue field being isomorphic to $K$ is not a strong enough condition. Concretely, a counterexample is given by $(X^2 - Y^2) subset mathbb{C}(Y^2)[X]$, a maximal ideal with quotient field $mathbb{C}(Y)$.



                However, if the quotient $K[X_1, ldots , X_n] / mathfrak{m}$ is actually isomorphic to $K$ as a $K$-algebra, then, if $a_i$ denotes the image of $X_i$ in $K$, it is easy to see that $X_i - a_i$ lies in $mathfrak{m}$ for each $i$, and therefore $mathfrak{m} = (X_1-a_1, ldots , X_n - a_n)$.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  6
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  6
                  down vote









                  It depends on what you mean by "equal". A field can be isomorphic to a non-trivial finite extension of itself, e.g. $mathbb{C}(Y^2) cong mathbb{C}(Y)$, so the residue field being isomorphic to $K$ is not a strong enough condition. Concretely, a counterexample is given by $(X^2 - Y^2) subset mathbb{C}(Y^2)[X]$, a maximal ideal with quotient field $mathbb{C}(Y)$.



                  However, if the quotient $K[X_1, ldots , X_n] / mathfrak{m}$ is actually isomorphic to $K$ as a $K$-algebra, then, if $a_i$ denotes the image of $X_i$ in $K$, it is easy to see that $X_i - a_i$ lies in $mathfrak{m}$ for each $i$, and therefore $mathfrak{m} = (X_1-a_1, ldots , X_n - a_n)$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  It depends on what you mean by "equal". A field can be isomorphic to a non-trivial finite extension of itself, e.g. $mathbb{C}(Y^2) cong mathbb{C}(Y)$, so the residue field being isomorphic to $K$ is not a strong enough condition. Concretely, a counterexample is given by $(X^2 - Y^2) subset mathbb{C}(Y^2)[X]$, a maximal ideal with quotient field $mathbb{C}(Y)$.



                  However, if the quotient $K[X_1, ldots , X_n] / mathfrak{m}$ is actually isomorphic to $K$ as a $K$-algebra, then, if $a_i$ denotes the image of $X_i$ in $K$, it is easy to see that $X_i - a_i$ lies in $mathfrak{m}$ for each $i$, and therefore $mathfrak{m} = (X_1-a_1, ldots , X_n - a_n)$.







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                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 2 days ago









                  Slade

                  24.4k12564




                  24.4k12564






















                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote













                      I can give a positive answer when $k$ is algebraically closed.



                      From the Hilbert Nulstellensatz, we know that



                      $$k^n to {mathrm{maximal ideals in k[X_1, dots, X_n]}}: (a_1, dots, a_n) mapsto I({a_1, dots, a_n}) = (X_1-a_1, dots, X_n-a_n)$$ is a bijection and the result readily follows.



                      See also: basic question on maximal ideals in $K[X_1,...,X_n]$






                      share|cite|improve this answer



























                        up vote
                        0
                        down vote













                        I can give a positive answer when $k$ is algebraically closed.



                        From the Hilbert Nulstellensatz, we know that



                        $$k^n to {mathrm{maximal ideals in k[X_1, dots, X_n]}}: (a_1, dots, a_n) mapsto I({a_1, dots, a_n}) = (X_1-a_1, dots, X_n-a_n)$$ is a bijection and the result readily follows.



                        See also: basic question on maximal ideals in $K[X_1,...,X_n]$






                        share|cite|improve this answer

























                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote









                          I can give a positive answer when $k$ is algebraically closed.



                          From the Hilbert Nulstellensatz, we know that



                          $$k^n to {mathrm{maximal ideals in k[X_1, dots, X_n]}}: (a_1, dots, a_n) mapsto I({a_1, dots, a_n}) = (X_1-a_1, dots, X_n-a_n)$$ is a bijection and the result readily follows.



                          See also: basic question on maximal ideals in $K[X_1,...,X_n]$






                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          I can give a positive answer when $k$ is algebraically closed.



                          From the Hilbert Nulstellensatz, we know that



                          $$k^n to {mathrm{maximal ideals in k[X_1, dots, X_n]}}: (a_1, dots, a_n) mapsto I({a_1, dots, a_n}) = (X_1-a_1, dots, X_n-a_n)$$ is a bijection and the result readily follows.



                          See also: basic question on maximal ideals in $K[X_1,...,X_n]$







                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer








                          edited yesterday

























                          answered yesterday









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