Determine $lambda^{2}({(x,y) in mathbb R^{2}: x in mathbb Qcap [0,1], y in [0,1]})$












0












$begingroup$


Define $M:={(x,y) in mathbb R^{2}: x in mathbb Qcap [0,1], y in [0,1]}$



Find $lambda^{2}(M)$



Ideas:



Well, first I should show that $M in mathcal{B}^2$



Note that for $x in mathbb Q cap [0,1]$



${x}times[0,1]inmathcal{B}^2$



And so it follows: $(mathbb Q cap [0,1])times[0,1]=bigcup_{x in mathbb Q cap [0,1]}{x}times[0,1]$ which is $in mathcal{B}^2$



Now onto $lambda^{2}(M)$:



As proven above:



$lambda^{2}(M)=lambda^{2}(bigcup_{x in mathbb Q cap [0,1]}{x}times[0,1])=sum_{x in mathbb Q cap [0,1]}lambda^{2}({x}times[0,1])$



I assume that ${x}times[0,1]$ is a hyperplane but I lack any idea to show that it is a hyperplane. Is $dim ({x}times[0,1])=1$ or $2$?



Secondly, out of interest's sake, if I have $A in mathcal{B}^{2}$, with $lambda^{2}(A)=c,$ where $c in mathbb R_{>0}$



what can I say about $lambda(A)$ as well as $lambda^{3}(A)$?



Any guidance is greatly appreciated



I assume $lambda^{3}(A)=0$ as $A=Atimes {0}in mathcal{B}^3$ is a hyperplane in $mathbb R^{3}$, is it not?










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    0












    $begingroup$


    Define $M:={(x,y) in mathbb R^{2}: x in mathbb Qcap [0,1], y in [0,1]}$



    Find $lambda^{2}(M)$



    Ideas:



    Well, first I should show that $M in mathcal{B}^2$



    Note that for $x in mathbb Q cap [0,1]$



    ${x}times[0,1]inmathcal{B}^2$



    And so it follows: $(mathbb Q cap [0,1])times[0,1]=bigcup_{x in mathbb Q cap [0,1]}{x}times[0,1]$ which is $in mathcal{B}^2$



    Now onto $lambda^{2}(M)$:



    As proven above:



    $lambda^{2}(M)=lambda^{2}(bigcup_{x in mathbb Q cap [0,1]}{x}times[0,1])=sum_{x in mathbb Q cap [0,1]}lambda^{2}({x}times[0,1])$



    I assume that ${x}times[0,1]$ is a hyperplane but I lack any idea to show that it is a hyperplane. Is $dim ({x}times[0,1])=1$ or $2$?



    Secondly, out of interest's sake, if I have $A in mathcal{B}^{2}$, with $lambda^{2}(A)=c,$ where $c in mathbb R_{>0}$



    what can I say about $lambda(A)$ as well as $lambda^{3}(A)$?



    Any guidance is greatly appreciated



    I assume $lambda^{3}(A)=0$ as $A=Atimes {0}in mathcal{B}^3$ is a hyperplane in $mathbb R^{3}$, is it not?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Define $M:={(x,y) in mathbb R^{2}: x in mathbb Qcap [0,1], y in [0,1]}$



      Find $lambda^{2}(M)$



      Ideas:



      Well, first I should show that $M in mathcal{B}^2$



      Note that for $x in mathbb Q cap [0,1]$



      ${x}times[0,1]inmathcal{B}^2$



      And so it follows: $(mathbb Q cap [0,1])times[0,1]=bigcup_{x in mathbb Q cap [0,1]}{x}times[0,1]$ which is $in mathcal{B}^2$



      Now onto $lambda^{2}(M)$:



      As proven above:



      $lambda^{2}(M)=lambda^{2}(bigcup_{x in mathbb Q cap [0,1]}{x}times[0,1])=sum_{x in mathbb Q cap [0,1]}lambda^{2}({x}times[0,1])$



      I assume that ${x}times[0,1]$ is a hyperplane but I lack any idea to show that it is a hyperplane. Is $dim ({x}times[0,1])=1$ or $2$?



      Secondly, out of interest's sake, if I have $A in mathcal{B}^{2}$, with $lambda^{2}(A)=c,$ where $c in mathbb R_{>0}$



      what can I say about $lambda(A)$ as well as $lambda^{3}(A)$?



      Any guidance is greatly appreciated



      I assume $lambda^{3}(A)=0$ as $A=Atimes {0}in mathcal{B}^3$ is a hyperplane in $mathbb R^{3}$, is it not?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Define $M:={(x,y) in mathbb R^{2}: x in mathbb Qcap [0,1], y in [0,1]}$



      Find $lambda^{2}(M)$



      Ideas:



      Well, first I should show that $M in mathcal{B}^2$



      Note that for $x in mathbb Q cap [0,1]$



      ${x}times[0,1]inmathcal{B}^2$



      And so it follows: $(mathbb Q cap [0,1])times[0,1]=bigcup_{x in mathbb Q cap [0,1]}{x}times[0,1]$ which is $in mathcal{B}^2$



      Now onto $lambda^{2}(M)$:



      As proven above:



      $lambda^{2}(M)=lambda^{2}(bigcup_{x in mathbb Q cap [0,1]}{x}times[0,1])=sum_{x in mathbb Q cap [0,1]}lambda^{2}({x}times[0,1])$



      I assume that ${x}times[0,1]$ is a hyperplane but I lack any idea to show that it is a hyperplane. Is $dim ({x}times[0,1])=1$ or $2$?



      Secondly, out of interest's sake, if I have $A in mathcal{B}^{2}$, with $lambda^{2}(A)=c,$ where $c in mathbb R_{>0}$



      what can I say about $lambda(A)$ as well as $lambda^{3}(A)$?



      Any guidance is greatly appreciated



      I assume $lambda^{3}(A)=0$ as $A=Atimes {0}in mathcal{B}^3$ is a hyperplane in $mathbb R^{3}$, is it not?







      real-analysis measure-theory lebesgue-integral lebesgue-measure






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      asked Jan 13 at 13:58









      MinaThumaMinaThuma

      1458




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          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          For the first question, ${x}times[0,1]$ is not a hyperplane, but rather a subset of the hyperplane ${x}timesBbb R$ in $Bbb R^2$. The dimension of ${x}timesBbb R$ is $1$.



          Regarding the second part (I'm assuming that $lambda^n$ denotes the Lebesgue measure on $Bbb R^n$), if $lambda^n(A) >0$ then we have $lambda^m(A)=0$ for all $m>n$
          because $A$ would be contained in a hyperplane of $Bbb R^m$
          .



          On the other hand, $lambda^r(A)$ doesn't really make sense if $r<n$ because $A$ is an object in $Bbb R^n$ which is not contained in $Bbb R^r$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the clarification: Is ${x}times mathbb R$ a hyperplane in $mathbb R^{2}$ because $dim mathbb R=1$ and $(x,0)+mathbb R={x}times mathbb R$?
            $endgroup$
            – MinaThuma
            Jan 13 at 14:29






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Basically yes, but note that in your expression $(x,0)+mathbb R$ here $Bbb R$ should be identified with ${ (0,y): yinBbb R }$.
            $endgroup$
            – BigbearZzz
            Jan 13 at 14:32











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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          1












          $begingroup$

          For the first question, ${x}times[0,1]$ is not a hyperplane, but rather a subset of the hyperplane ${x}timesBbb R$ in $Bbb R^2$. The dimension of ${x}timesBbb R$ is $1$.



          Regarding the second part (I'm assuming that $lambda^n$ denotes the Lebesgue measure on $Bbb R^n$), if $lambda^n(A) >0$ then we have $lambda^m(A)=0$ for all $m>n$
          because $A$ would be contained in a hyperplane of $Bbb R^m$
          .



          On the other hand, $lambda^r(A)$ doesn't really make sense if $r<n$ because $A$ is an object in $Bbb R^n$ which is not contained in $Bbb R^r$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the clarification: Is ${x}times mathbb R$ a hyperplane in $mathbb R^{2}$ because $dim mathbb R=1$ and $(x,0)+mathbb R={x}times mathbb R$?
            $endgroup$
            – MinaThuma
            Jan 13 at 14:29






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Basically yes, but note that in your expression $(x,0)+mathbb R$ here $Bbb R$ should be identified with ${ (0,y): yinBbb R }$.
            $endgroup$
            – BigbearZzz
            Jan 13 at 14:32
















          1












          $begingroup$

          For the first question, ${x}times[0,1]$ is not a hyperplane, but rather a subset of the hyperplane ${x}timesBbb R$ in $Bbb R^2$. The dimension of ${x}timesBbb R$ is $1$.



          Regarding the second part (I'm assuming that $lambda^n$ denotes the Lebesgue measure on $Bbb R^n$), if $lambda^n(A) >0$ then we have $lambda^m(A)=0$ for all $m>n$
          because $A$ would be contained in a hyperplane of $Bbb R^m$
          .



          On the other hand, $lambda^r(A)$ doesn't really make sense if $r<n$ because $A$ is an object in $Bbb R^n$ which is not contained in $Bbb R^r$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the clarification: Is ${x}times mathbb R$ a hyperplane in $mathbb R^{2}$ because $dim mathbb R=1$ and $(x,0)+mathbb R={x}times mathbb R$?
            $endgroup$
            – MinaThuma
            Jan 13 at 14:29






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Basically yes, but note that in your expression $(x,0)+mathbb R$ here $Bbb R$ should be identified with ${ (0,y): yinBbb R }$.
            $endgroup$
            – BigbearZzz
            Jan 13 at 14:32














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          For the first question, ${x}times[0,1]$ is not a hyperplane, but rather a subset of the hyperplane ${x}timesBbb R$ in $Bbb R^2$. The dimension of ${x}timesBbb R$ is $1$.



          Regarding the second part (I'm assuming that $lambda^n$ denotes the Lebesgue measure on $Bbb R^n$), if $lambda^n(A) >0$ then we have $lambda^m(A)=0$ for all $m>n$
          because $A$ would be contained in a hyperplane of $Bbb R^m$
          .



          On the other hand, $lambda^r(A)$ doesn't really make sense if $r<n$ because $A$ is an object in $Bbb R^n$ which is not contained in $Bbb R^r$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          For the first question, ${x}times[0,1]$ is not a hyperplane, but rather a subset of the hyperplane ${x}timesBbb R$ in $Bbb R^2$. The dimension of ${x}timesBbb R$ is $1$.



          Regarding the second part (I'm assuming that $lambda^n$ denotes the Lebesgue measure on $Bbb R^n$), if $lambda^n(A) >0$ then we have $lambda^m(A)=0$ for all $m>n$
          because $A$ would be contained in a hyperplane of $Bbb R^m$
          .



          On the other hand, $lambda^r(A)$ doesn't really make sense if $r<n$ because $A$ is an object in $Bbb R^n$ which is not contained in $Bbb R^r$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 13 at 14:08









          BigbearZzzBigbearZzz

          8,72621652




          8,72621652












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the clarification: Is ${x}times mathbb R$ a hyperplane in $mathbb R^{2}$ because $dim mathbb R=1$ and $(x,0)+mathbb R={x}times mathbb R$?
            $endgroup$
            – MinaThuma
            Jan 13 at 14:29






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Basically yes, but note that in your expression $(x,0)+mathbb R$ here $Bbb R$ should be identified with ${ (0,y): yinBbb R }$.
            $endgroup$
            – BigbearZzz
            Jan 13 at 14:32


















          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the clarification: Is ${x}times mathbb R$ a hyperplane in $mathbb R^{2}$ because $dim mathbb R=1$ and $(x,0)+mathbb R={x}times mathbb R$?
            $endgroup$
            – MinaThuma
            Jan 13 at 14:29






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Basically yes, but note that in your expression $(x,0)+mathbb R$ here $Bbb R$ should be identified with ${ (0,y): yinBbb R }$.
            $endgroup$
            – BigbearZzz
            Jan 13 at 14:32
















          $begingroup$
          Thank you for the clarification: Is ${x}times mathbb R$ a hyperplane in $mathbb R^{2}$ because $dim mathbb R=1$ and $(x,0)+mathbb R={x}times mathbb R$?
          $endgroup$
          – MinaThuma
          Jan 13 at 14:29




          $begingroup$
          Thank you for the clarification: Is ${x}times mathbb R$ a hyperplane in $mathbb R^{2}$ because $dim mathbb R=1$ and $(x,0)+mathbb R={x}times mathbb R$?
          $endgroup$
          – MinaThuma
          Jan 13 at 14:29




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          Basically yes, but note that in your expression $(x,0)+mathbb R$ here $Bbb R$ should be identified with ${ (0,y): yinBbb R }$.
          $endgroup$
          – BigbearZzz
          Jan 13 at 14:32




          $begingroup$
          Basically yes, but note that in your expression $(x,0)+mathbb R$ here $Bbb R$ should be identified with ${ (0,y): yinBbb R }$.
          $endgroup$
          – BigbearZzz
          Jan 13 at 14:32


















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