How do I induce this Hardy-Littlewood-Sobolev inequality












1












$begingroup$


The Hardy-Littlewood-Sobolev inequality in my book,




Let $0<alpha < d$, $1<p<q<infty$, and $frac{1}{q} +1 = frac {1}{p} + frac {alpha}{d}$. Then
$$ lVert f ast |cdot|^{alpha} rVert_{L^{q}(mathbb{R}^d )} leq C_{p,q} lVert f rVert_{L^{p}(mathbb{R}^d)}.$$




But I saw another one,




$$int_{mathbb{R}^d} int_{mathbb{R}^d} frac {f(x)g(y)}{|x-y|^{alpha}}dxdy
leq C_{alpha, p, d }lVert f rVert_{L^{p}(mathbb{R}^d)}lVert g rVert_{L^{q}(mathbb{R}^d)}. $$

for all $f in L^p, g in L^q,quad 1<p,q< infty,quad frac{1}{p} + frac{1}{q} + frac {alpha}{d} = 2$ and $0<alpha <d $.




I want to show bottom one but I am failing it.










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I think a direct use of the definition of convolution and Holder Inequality should give you this result, have you tried this already?
    $endgroup$
    – Zixiao_Liu
    Jan 13 at 9:12












  • $begingroup$
    @Zixiao_Liu Oh my days, I'm such an idiot. Thank you so much. I couldn't think about elementary method. Can't I vote here?
    $endgroup$
    – Idkwhat
    Jan 13 at 9:30










  • $begingroup$
    Maybe you would like to print a sketch of proof and admit it as the answer yourself ;) It is quite lengthy and not interesting, but still a good exercise anyway. LOL
    $endgroup$
    – Zixiao_Liu
    Jan 13 at 10:33
















1












$begingroup$


The Hardy-Littlewood-Sobolev inequality in my book,




Let $0<alpha < d$, $1<p<q<infty$, and $frac{1}{q} +1 = frac {1}{p} + frac {alpha}{d}$. Then
$$ lVert f ast |cdot|^{alpha} rVert_{L^{q}(mathbb{R}^d )} leq C_{p,q} lVert f rVert_{L^{p}(mathbb{R}^d)}.$$




But I saw another one,




$$int_{mathbb{R}^d} int_{mathbb{R}^d} frac {f(x)g(y)}{|x-y|^{alpha}}dxdy
leq C_{alpha, p, d }lVert f rVert_{L^{p}(mathbb{R}^d)}lVert g rVert_{L^{q}(mathbb{R}^d)}. $$

for all $f in L^p, g in L^q,quad 1<p,q< infty,quad frac{1}{p} + frac{1}{q} + frac {alpha}{d} = 2$ and $0<alpha <d $.




I want to show bottom one but I am failing it.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I think a direct use of the definition of convolution and Holder Inequality should give you this result, have you tried this already?
    $endgroup$
    – Zixiao_Liu
    Jan 13 at 9:12












  • $begingroup$
    @Zixiao_Liu Oh my days, I'm such an idiot. Thank you so much. I couldn't think about elementary method. Can't I vote here?
    $endgroup$
    – Idkwhat
    Jan 13 at 9:30










  • $begingroup$
    Maybe you would like to print a sketch of proof and admit it as the answer yourself ;) It is quite lengthy and not interesting, but still a good exercise anyway. LOL
    $endgroup$
    – Zixiao_Liu
    Jan 13 at 10:33














1












1








1


1



$begingroup$


The Hardy-Littlewood-Sobolev inequality in my book,




Let $0<alpha < d$, $1<p<q<infty$, and $frac{1}{q} +1 = frac {1}{p} + frac {alpha}{d}$. Then
$$ lVert f ast |cdot|^{alpha} rVert_{L^{q}(mathbb{R}^d )} leq C_{p,q} lVert f rVert_{L^{p}(mathbb{R}^d)}.$$




But I saw another one,




$$int_{mathbb{R}^d} int_{mathbb{R}^d} frac {f(x)g(y)}{|x-y|^{alpha}}dxdy
leq C_{alpha, p, d }lVert f rVert_{L^{p}(mathbb{R}^d)}lVert g rVert_{L^{q}(mathbb{R}^d)}. $$

for all $f in L^p, g in L^q,quad 1<p,q< infty,quad frac{1}{p} + frac{1}{q} + frac {alpha}{d} = 2$ and $0<alpha <d $.




I want to show bottom one but I am failing it.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




The Hardy-Littlewood-Sobolev inequality in my book,




Let $0<alpha < d$, $1<p<q<infty$, and $frac{1}{q} +1 = frac {1}{p} + frac {alpha}{d}$. Then
$$ lVert f ast |cdot|^{alpha} rVert_{L^{q}(mathbb{R}^d )} leq C_{p,q} lVert f rVert_{L^{p}(mathbb{R}^d)}.$$




But I saw another one,




$$int_{mathbb{R}^d} int_{mathbb{R}^d} frac {f(x)g(y)}{|x-y|^{alpha}}dxdy
leq C_{alpha, p, d }lVert f rVert_{L^{p}(mathbb{R}^d)}lVert g rVert_{L^{q}(mathbb{R}^d)}. $$

for all $f in L^p, g in L^q,quad 1<p,q< infty,quad frac{1}{p} + frac{1}{q} + frac {alpha}{d} = 2$ and $0<alpha <d $.




I want to show bottom one but I am failing it.







fourier-analysis harmonic-analysis






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share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Jan 13 at 8:55









IdkwhatIdkwhat

236




236












  • $begingroup$
    I think a direct use of the definition of convolution and Holder Inequality should give you this result, have you tried this already?
    $endgroup$
    – Zixiao_Liu
    Jan 13 at 9:12












  • $begingroup$
    @Zixiao_Liu Oh my days, I'm such an idiot. Thank you so much. I couldn't think about elementary method. Can't I vote here?
    $endgroup$
    – Idkwhat
    Jan 13 at 9:30










  • $begingroup$
    Maybe you would like to print a sketch of proof and admit it as the answer yourself ;) It is quite lengthy and not interesting, but still a good exercise anyway. LOL
    $endgroup$
    – Zixiao_Liu
    Jan 13 at 10:33


















  • $begingroup$
    I think a direct use of the definition of convolution and Holder Inequality should give you this result, have you tried this already?
    $endgroup$
    – Zixiao_Liu
    Jan 13 at 9:12












  • $begingroup$
    @Zixiao_Liu Oh my days, I'm such an idiot. Thank you so much. I couldn't think about elementary method. Can't I vote here?
    $endgroup$
    – Idkwhat
    Jan 13 at 9:30










  • $begingroup$
    Maybe you would like to print a sketch of proof and admit it as the answer yourself ;) It is quite lengthy and not interesting, but still a good exercise anyway. LOL
    $endgroup$
    – Zixiao_Liu
    Jan 13 at 10:33
















$begingroup$
I think a direct use of the definition of convolution and Holder Inequality should give you this result, have you tried this already?
$endgroup$
– Zixiao_Liu
Jan 13 at 9:12






$begingroup$
I think a direct use of the definition of convolution and Holder Inequality should give you this result, have you tried this already?
$endgroup$
– Zixiao_Liu
Jan 13 at 9:12














$begingroup$
@Zixiao_Liu Oh my days, I'm such an idiot. Thank you so much. I couldn't think about elementary method. Can't I vote here?
$endgroup$
– Idkwhat
Jan 13 at 9:30




$begingroup$
@Zixiao_Liu Oh my days, I'm such an idiot. Thank you so much. I couldn't think about elementary method. Can't I vote here?
$endgroup$
– Idkwhat
Jan 13 at 9:30












$begingroup$
Maybe you would like to print a sketch of proof and admit it as the answer yourself ;) It is quite lengthy and not interesting, but still a good exercise anyway. LOL
$endgroup$
– Zixiao_Liu
Jan 13 at 10:33




$begingroup$
Maybe you would like to print a sketch of proof and admit it as the answer yourself ;) It is quite lengthy and not interesting, but still a good exercise anyway. LOL
$endgroup$
– Zixiao_Liu
Jan 13 at 10:33










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