The quaternion division ring contains an infinite number of elements $ u $ satisfying $ u^2=-1 $
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Show that the quaternion division ring contains an infinite number of elements $ u $ satisfying $ u^2=-1 $
I was trying to solve the above exercise on Page 133, Basic Algebra, Jacobson. Maybe it is convenient to consider $$ mathbb H=left{ left[begin{matrix} alpha & beta\-bar{beta} & bar{alpha} end{matrix} right]: alpha, betainmathbb C right}. $$
Of course,
$$ i= begin{bmatrix} sqrt{-1} & 0\ 0 & -sqrt{-1} end{bmatrix},quad j=begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 \ -1 & 0 end{bmatrix},quad k=begin{bmatrix}
0 & sqrt{-1}\ sqrt{-1} & 0 end{bmatrix} $$
satisfy $ u^2=-1 $. But how to show that there are infinitely many elements in $ mathbb H $ satisfying the identity?
abstract-algebra ring-theory quaternions
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Show that the quaternion division ring contains an infinite number of elements $ u $ satisfying $ u^2=-1 $
I was trying to solve the above exercise on Page 133, Basic Algebra, Jacobson. Maybe it is convenient to consider $$ mathbb H=left{ left[begin{matrix} alpha & beta\-bar{beta} & bar{alpha} end{matrix} right]: alpha, betainmathbb C right}. $$
Of course,
$$ i= begin{bmatrix} sqrt{-1} & 0\ 0 & -sqrt{-1} end{bmatrix},quad j=begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 \ -1 & 0 end{bmatrix},quad k=begin{bmatrix}
0 & sqrt{-1}\ sqrt{-1} & 0 end{bmatrix} $$
satisfy $ u^2=-1 $. But how to show that there are infinitely many elements in $ mathbb H $ satisfying the identity?
abstract-algebra ring-theory quaternions
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
"Maybe it is convenient....". It isn't.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 13 at 8:49
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Show that the quaternion division ring contains an infinite number of elements $ u $ satisfying $ u^2=-1 $
I was trying to solve the above exercise on Page 133, Basic Algebra, Jacobson. Maybe it is convenient to consider $$ mathbb H=left{ left[begin{matrix} alpha & beta\-bar{beta} & bar{alpha} end{matrix} right]: alpha, betainmathbb C right}. $$
Of course,
$$ i= begin{bmatrix} sqrt{-1} & 0\ 0 & -sqrt{-1} end{bmatrix},quad j=begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 \ -1 & 0 end{bmatrix},quad k=begin{bmatrix}
0 & sqrt{-1}\ sqrt{-1} & 0 end{bmatrix} $$
satisfy $ u^2=-1 $. But how to show that there are infinitely many elements in $ mathbb H $ satisfying the identity?
abstract-algebra ring-theory quaternions
$endgroup$
Show that the quaternion division ring contains an infinite number of elements $ u $ satisfying $ u^2=-1 $
I was trying to solve the above exercise on Page 133, Basic Algebra, Jacobson. Maybe it is convenient to consider $$ mathbb H=left{ left[begin{matrix} alpha & beta\-bar{beta} & bar{alpha} end{matrix} right]: alpha, betainmathbb C right}. $$
Of course,
$$ i= begin{bmatrix} sqrt{-1} & 0\ 0 & -sqrt{-1} end{bmatrix},quad j=begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 \ -1 & 0 end{bmatrix},quad k=begin{bmatrix}
0 & sqrt{-1}\ sqrt{-1} & 0 end{bmatrix} $$
satisfy $ u^2=-1 $. But how to show that there are infinitely many elements in $ mathbb H $ satisfying the identity?
abstract-algebra ring-theory quaternions
abstract-algebra ring-theory quaternions
asked Jan 13 at 8:39
user549397user549397
1,5101418
1,5101418
1
$begingroup$
"Maybe it is convenient....". It isn't.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 13 at 8:49
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
"Maybe it is convenient....". It isn't.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 13 at 8:49
1
1
$begingroup$
"Maybe it is convenient....". It isn't.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 13 at 8:49
$begingroup$
"Maybe it is convenient....". It isn't.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 13 at 8:49
add a comment |
2 Answers
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$begingroup$
The proof of this statement can be found on Wikipedia. Let the square root of $-1$ be $x=a+bi+cj+dk$, then $x^2=-1$ is equivalent to
$$a^2-b^2-c^2-d^2=-1qquad2ab=2ac=2ad=0$$
If $ane0$, $b=c=d=0$ and the first equation becomes $a^2=-1$, impossible since $ainmathbb R$. Hence $a=0$, at which point the second set of equations is automatically satisfied and the first equation becomes $b^2+c^2+d^2=1$. The quaternionic square roots of $-1$ thus form the unit sphere in $mathbb R^3$, so there are infinitely many solutions.
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add a comment |
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Hint: Forget about the matrices for a moment. What is $(ai+bj)^2$?
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
The proof of this statement can be found on Wikipedia. Let the square root of $-1$ be $x=a+bi+cj+dk$, then $x^2=-1$ is equivalent to
$$a^2-b^2-c^2-d^2=-1qquad2ab=2ac=2ad=0$$
If $ane0$, $b=c=d=0$ and the first equation becomes $a^2=-1$, impossible since $ainmathbb R$. Hence $a=0$, at which point the second set of equations is automatically satisfied and the first equation becomes $b^2+c^2+d^2=1$. The quaternionic square roots of $-1$ thus form the unit sphere in $mathbb R^3$, so there are infinitely many solutions.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The proof of this statement can be found on Wikipedia. Let the square root of $-1$ be $x=a+bi+cj+dk$, then $x^2=-1$ is equivalent to
$$a^2-b^2-c^2-d^2=-1qquad2ab=2ac=2ad=0$$
If $ane0$, $b=c=d=0$ and the first equation becomes $a^2=-1$, impossible since $ainmathbb R$. Hence $a=0$, at which point the second set of equations is automatically satisfied and the first equation becomes $b^2+c^2+d^2=1$. The quaternionic square roots of $-1$ thus form the unit sphere in $mathbb R^3$, so there are infinitely many solutions.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The proof of this statement can be found on Wikipedia. Let the square root of $-1$ be $x=a+bi+cj+dk$, then $x^2=-1$ is equivalent to
$$a^2-b^2-c^2-d^2=-1qquad2ab=2ac=2ad=0$$
If $ane0$, $b=c=d=0$ and the first equation becomes $a^2=-1$, impossible since $ainmathbb R$. Hence $a=0$, at which point the second set of equations is automatically satisfied and the first equation becomes $b^2+c^2+d^2=1$. The quaternionic square roots of $-1$ thus form the unit sphere in $mathbb R^3$, so there are infinitely many solutions.
$endgroup$
The proof of this statement can be found on Wikipedia. Let the square root of $-1$ be $x=a+bi+cj+dk$, then $x^2=-1$ is equivalent to
$$a^2-b^2-c^2-d^2=-1qquad2ab=2ac=2ad=0$$
If $ane0$, $b=c=d=0$ and the first equation becomes $a^2=-1$, impossible since $ainmathbb R$. Hence $a=0$, at which point the second set of equations is automatically satisfied and the first equation becomes $b^2+c^2+d^2=1$. The quaternionic square roots of $-1$ thus form the unit sphere in $mathbb R^3$, so there are infinitely many solutions.
edited Jan 13 at 8:59
answered Jan 13 at 8:49


Parcly TaxelParcly Taxel
41.8k1372101
41.8k1372101
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$begingroup$
Hint: Forget about the matrices for a moment. What is $(ai+bj)^2$?
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint: Forget about the matrices for a moment. What is $(ai+bj)^2$?
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint: Forget about the matrices for a moment. What is $(ai+bj)^2$?
$endgroup$
Hint: Forget about the matrices for a moment. What is $(ai+bj)^2$?
answered Jan 13 at 8:45


ArthurArthur
115k7116198
115k7116198
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"Maybe it is convenient....". It isn't.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 13 at 8:49