Orientation preserving homeomorphism on a torus












1












$begingroup$


Let $Τ^2=S^1times S^1$ be the standard torus, $f:T^2 to T^2$ an orientation preserving homeomorphism that is the identity on a meridian $m$ and $A$ an $ε$-neighbourhood of $m$.



My question is, if we cut $f(T^2)$ along $f(m)$ do points in $A$ on the left of $m$ are still mapped on the left of $f(m)$?



I believe they do but I can't rigorously see why. If so, can someone please explain why?



EDIT: I have given it some thought and came up with something, I would like to check if it's correct.



Let's say, without loss of generality that a cylindrical neighbourhood of $m$ is mapped homeomorphically to another cylindrical neighbouhood of $m$. For connectivity reasons the left region will either be mapped homeomorphically on the left or right region of the image. Let's say it's mapped on the right region, then the right side will be mapped on the left side. Let's take a circle inside our neighbourhood crossing $m$ on points $a$ and $b$ and choose points $p$ and $q$ on our circle, $p$ on the left region and $q$ on the right region. If $overrightarrow {pq}$ is the arc containing $a$ then it will be mapped to the arc $overleftarrow {f(q)f(p)}$ that contains $a=f(a)$. But that would contradict $f$ being orientation preserving.










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    How much algebraic topology do you know? Do you know what $H_2(T^2, T^2-p)$ means?
    $endgroup$
    – Moishe Cohen
    Jan 10 at 23:57












  • $begingroup$
    Yes, that's the relative homology group. I am also aware of the definition of orientation preserving map in regards to the relative homology groups, i.e. $f_*:H_2(T^2,T^2-p)to H_2(T^2,T^2-f(p))$ should be the identity
    $endgroup$
    – Amontillado
    Jan 11 at 3:17
















1












$begingroup$


Let $Τ^2=S^1times S^1$ be the standard torus, $f:T^2 to T^2$ an orientation preserving homeomorphism that is the identity on a meridian $m$ and $A$ an $ε$-neighbourhood of $m$.



My question is, if we cut $f(T^2)$ along $f(m)$ do points in $A$ on the left of $m$ are still mapped on the left of $f(m)$?



I believe they do but I can't rigorously see why. If so, can someone please explain why?



EDIT: I have given it some thought and came up with something, I would like to check if it's correct.



Let's say, without loss of generality that a cylindrical neighbourhood of $m$ is mapped homeomorphically to another cylindrical neighbouhood of $m$. For connectivity reasons the left region will either be mapped homeomorphically on the left or right region of the image. Let's say it's mapped on the right region, then the right side will be mapped on the left side. Let's take a circle inside our neighbourhood crossing $m$ on points $a$ and $b$ and choose points $p$ and $q$ on our circle, $p$ on the left region and $q$ on the right region. If $overrightarrow {pq}$ is the arc containing $a$ then it will be mapped to the arc $overleftarrow {f(q)f(p)}$ that contains $a=f(a)$. But that would contradict $f$ being orientation preserving.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    How much algebraic topology do you know? Do you know what $H_2(T^2, T^2-p)$ means?
    $endgroup$
    – Moishe Cohen
    Jan 10 at 23:57












  • $begingroup$
    Yes, that's the relative homology group. I am also aware of the definition of orientation preserving map in regards to the relative homology groups, i.e. $f_*:H_2(T^2,T^2-p)to H_2(T^2,T^2-f(p))$ should be the identity
    $endgroup$
    – Amontillado
    Jan 11 at 3:17














1












1








1





$begingroup$


Let $Τ^2=S^1times S^1$ be the standard torus, $f:T^2 to T^2$ an orientation preserving homeomorphism that is the identity on a meridian $m$ and $A$ an $ε$-neighbourhood of $m$.



My question is, if we cut $f(T^2)$ along $f(m)$ do points in $A$ on the left of $m$ are still mapped on the left of $f(m)$?



I believe they do but I can't rigorously see why. If so, can someone please explain why?



EDIT: I have given it some thought and came up with something, I would like to check if it's correct.



Let's say, without loss of generality that a cylindrical neighbourhood of $m$ is mapped homeomorphically to another cylindrical neighbouhood of $m$. For connectivity reasons the left region will either be mapped homeomorphically on the left or right region of the image. Let's say it's mapped on the right region, then the right side will be mapped on the left side. Let's take a circle inside our neighbourhood crossing $m$ on points $a$ and $b$ and choose points $p$ and $q$ on our circle, $p$ on the left region and $q$ on the right region. If $overrightarrow {pq}$ is the arc containing $a$ then it will be mapped to the arc $overleftarrow {f(q)f(p)}$ that contains $a=f(a)$. But that would contradict $f$ being orientation preserving.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $Τ^2=S^1times S^1$ be the standard torus, $f:T^2 to T^2$ an orientation preserving homeomorphism that is the identity on a meridian $m$ and $A$ an $ε$-neighbourhood of $m$.



My question is, if we cut $f(T^2)$ along $f(m)$ do points in $A$ on the left of $m$ are still mapped on the left of $f(m)$?



I believe they do but I can't rigorously see why. If so, can someone please explain why?



EDIT: I have given it some thought and came up with something, I would like to check if it's correct.



Let's say, without loss of generality that a cylindrical neighbourhood of $m$ is mapped homeomorphically to another cylindrical neighbouhood of $m$. For connectivity reasons the left region will either be mapped homeomorphically on the left or right region of the image. Let's say it's mapped on the right region, then the right side will be mapped on the left side. Let's take a circle inside our neighbourhood crossing $m$ on points $a$ and $b$ and choose points $p$ and $q$ on our circle, $p$ on the left region and $q$ on the right region. If $overrightarrow {pq}$ is the arc containing $a$ then it will be mapped to the arc $overleftarrow {f(q)f(p)}$ that contains $a=f(a)$. But that would contradict $f$ being orientation preserving.







proof-verification geometric-topology






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 13 at 15:27







Amontillado

















asked Jan 10 at 2:35









AmontilladoAmontillado

449313




449313












  • $begingroup$
    How much algebraic topology do you know? Do you know what $H_2(T^2, T^2-p)$ means?
    $endgroup$
    – Moishe Cohen
    Jan 10 at 23:57












  • $begingroup$
    Yes, that's the relative homology group. I am also aware of the definition of orientation preserving map in regards to the relative homology groups, i.e. $f_*:H_2(T^2,T^2-p)to H_2(T^2,T^2-f(p))$ should be the identity
    $endgroup$
    – Amontillado
    Jan 11 at 3:17


















  • $begingroup$
    How much algebraic topology do you know? Do you know what $H_2(T^2, T^2-p)$ means?
    $endgroup$
    – Moishe Cohen
    Jan 10 at 23:57












  • $begingroup$
    Yes, that's the relative homology group. I am also aware of the definition of orientation preserving map in regards to the relative homology groups, i.e. $f_*:H_2(T^2,T^2-p)to H_2(T^2,T^2-f(p))$ should be the identity
    $endgroup$
    – Amontillado
    Jan 11 at 3:17
















$begingroup$
How much algebraic topology do you know? Do you know what $H_2(T^2, T^2-p)$ means?
$endgroup$
– Moishe Cohen
Jan 10 at 23:57






$begingroup$
How much algebraic topology do you know? Do you know what $H_2(T^2, T^2-p)$ means?
$endgroup$
– Moishe Cohen
Jan 10 at 23:57














$begingroup$
Yes, that's the relative homology group. I am also aware of the definition of orientation preserving map in regards to the relative homology groups, i.e. $f_*:H_2(T^2,T^2-p)to H_2(T^2,T^2-f(p))$ should be the identity
$endgroup$
– Amontillado
Jan 11 at 3:17




$begingroup$
Yes, that's the relative homology group. I am also aware of the definition of orientation preserving map in regards to the relative homology groups, i.e. $f_*:H_2(T^2,T^2-p)to H_2(T^2,T^2-f(p))$ should be the identity
$endgroup$
– Amontillado
Jan 11 at 3:17










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