Statistics : Hypothesis Testing [closed]












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I'm back with another question I can't solve. For this question, I was able to get part of the answer; nk$^{n-1}$(1-k), but I can't seem to see where you'd get the k$^n$ part.



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closed as off-topic by heropup, verret, Math1000, Eevee Trainer, Leucippus Jan 10 at 3:09


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


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    $begingroup$


    I'm back with another question I can't solve. For this question, I was able to get part of the answer; nk$^{n-1}$(1-k), but I can't seem to see where you'd get the k$^n$ part.



    Questions



    Answers










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$



    closed as off-topic by heropup, verret, Math1000, Eevee Trainer, Leucippus Jan 10 at 3:09


    This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


    • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – heropup, Math1000, Eevee Trainer, Leucippus

    If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.



















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      0





      $begingroup$


      I'm back with another question I can't solve. For this question, I was able to get part of the answer; nk$^{n-1}$(1-k), but I can't seem to see where you'd get the k$^n$ part.



      Questions



      Answers










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I'm back with another question I can't solve. For this question, I was able to get part of the answer; nk$^{n-1}$(1-k), but I can't seem to see where you'd get the k$^n$ part.



      Questions



      Answers







      binomial-distribution hypothesis-testing






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      asked Jan 9 at 19:43









      Jia Xuan NgJia Xuan Ng

      101




      101




      closed as off-topic by heropup, verret, Math1000, Eevee Trainer, Leucippus Jan 10 at 3:09


      This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


      • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – heropup, Math1000, Eevee Trainer, Leucippus

      If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







      closed as off-topic by heropup, verret, Math1000, Eevee Trainer, Leucippus Jan 10 at 3:09


      This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


      • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – heropup, Math1000, Eevee Trainer, Leucippus

      If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.






















          1 Answer
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          0












          $begingroup$

          If the alternative hypothesis is $H_1: p>k$ then it is an right tailed test, where $c$ is the critical value. If the critical value is part of the critical region, then the critical region is ${c,c+1,ldots, n}$.



          In your case $c=n-1$. Therefore the critical region is ${n-1, n}$. The largest element is always $n$. Now you sum up these probabilities:



          $$sum_{x=n-1}^{n} binom{n}{x}cdot k^xcdot (1-k)^{n-x}$$



          $$=binom{n}{n-1}cdot k^{n-1}cdot (1-k)^{1}+binom{n}{n}cdot k^{n}cdot (1-k)^{0}=ncdot k^{n-1}cdot (1-k)+k^n$$



          enter image description here



          The source is german wiki (translated).



          $alpha$ is the significance level.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I'm still confused on the k$^n$ part, do you do another binomial expansion but use n instead of n-1,and then add the two together?
            $endgroup$
            – Jia Xuan Ng
            Jan 9 at 22:57










          • $begingroup$
            @JiaXuanNg It has less to do with binomial expansion than the probabilities $P(X=n-1)$ and $P(X=n)$, where $Xsim Bin(n, k)$. I´ve calculated these two probabilities since $n-1$ and $n$ are the elements of the critical region. And yes, you have to add together since we want the probability for the (whole) critical region. Please, give a reply if you have additional questions or not.
            $endgroup$
            – callculus
            Jan 10 at 0:54












          • $begingroup$
            Sorry, was asleep. I'm starting to get it now, thank you very much. So if the critical region was n+1,would n also be part of it? Or is it n+2?
            $endgroup$
            – Jia Xuan Ng
            Jan 10 at 7:58










          • $begingroup$
            @JiaXuanNg No problem. I appreciate to get a reply, but it musn´t be immediately. No, the critical region goes from the critical value to n. See my edit. At the table the yellow marked row refers to your case. If the lower bound is $c=n-1$ then the probablity of the critical region is $sum_{i=c}^n B(i| p_0,n)=sumlimits_{i=n-1}^n B(i| k,n)$
            $endgroup$
            – callculus
            Jan 10 at 21:06












          • $begingroup$
            Ooh, I think I understand it now. I'm going to practice doing this types of questions. Thank you again!
            $endgroup$
            – Jia Xuan Ng
            Jan 11 at 7:53


















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          0












          $begingroup$

          If the alternative hypothesis is $H_1: p>k$ then it is an right tailed test, where $c$ is the critical value. If the critical value is part of the critical region, then the critical region is ${c,c+1,ldots, n}$.



          In your case $c=n-1$. Therefore the critical region is ${n-1, n}$. The largest element is always $n$. Now you sum up these probabilities:



          $$sum_{x=n-1}^{n} binom{n}{x}cdot k^xcdot (1-k)^{n-x}$$



          $$=binom{n}{n-1}cdot k^{n-1}cdot (1-k)^{1}+binom{n}{n}cdot k^{n}cdot (1-k)^{0}=ncdot k^{n-1}cdot (1-k)+k^n$$



          enter image description here



          The source is german wiki (translated).



          $alpha$ is the significance level.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I'm still confused on the k$^n$ part, do you do another binomial expansion but use n instead of n-1,and then add the two together?
            $endgroup$
            – Jia Xuan Ng
            Jan 9 at 22:57










          • $begingroup$
            @JiaXuanNg It has less to do with binomial expansion than the probabilities $P(X=n-1)$ and $P(X=n)$, where $Xsim Bin(n, k)$. I´ve calculated these two probabilities since $n-1$ and $n$ are the elements of the critical region. And yes, you have to add together since we want the probability for the (whole) critical region. Please, give a reply if you have additional questions or not.
            $endgroup$
            – callculus
            Jan 10 at 0:54












          • $begingroup$
            Sorry, was asleep. I'm starting to get it now, thank you very much. So if the critical region was n+1,would n also be part of it? Or is it n+2?
            $endgroup$
            – Jia Xuan Ng
            Jan 10 at 7:58










          • $begingroup$
            @JiaXuanNg No problem. I appreciate to get a reply, but it musn´t be immediately. No, the critical region goes from the critical value to n. See my edit. At the table the yellow marked row refers to your case. If the lower bound is $c=n-1$ then the probablity of the critical region is $sum_{i=c}^n B(i| p_0,n)=sumlimits_{i=n-1}^n B(i| k,n)$
            $endgroup$
            – callculus
            Jan 10 at 21:06












          • $begingroup$
            Ooh, I think I understand it now. I'm going to practice doing this types of questions. Thank you again!
            $endgroup$
            – Jia Xuan Ng
            Jan 11 at 7:53
















          0












          $begingroup$

          If the alternative hypothesis is $H_1: p>k$ then it is an right tailed test, where $c$ is the critical value. If the critical value is part of the critical region, then the critical region is ${c,c+1,ldots, n}$.



          In your case $c=n-1$. Therefore the critical region is ${n-1, n}$. The largest element is always $n$. Now you sum up these probabilities:



          $$sum_{x=n-1}^{n} binom{n}{x}cdot k^xcdot (1-k)^{n-x}$$



          $$=binom{n}{n-1}cdot k^{n-1}cdot (1-k)^{1}+binom{n}{n}cdot k^{n}cdot (1-k)^{0}=ncdot k^{n-1}cdot (1-k)+k^n$$



          enter image description here



          The source is german wiki (translated).



          $alpha$ is the significance level.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I'm still confused on the k$^n$ part, do you do another binomial expansion but use n instead of n-1,and then add the two together?
            $endgroup$
            – Jia Xuan Ng
            Jan 9 at 22:57










          • $begingroup$
            @JiaXuanNg It has less to do with binomial expansion than the probabilities $P(X=n-1)$ and $P(X=n)$, where $Xsim Bin(n, k)$. I´ve calculated these two probabilities since $n-1$ and $n$ are the elements of the critical region. And yes, you have to add together since we want the probability for the (whole) critical region. Please, give a reply if you have additional questions or not.
            $endgroup$
            – callculus
            Jan 10 at 0:54












          • $begingroup$
            Sorry, was asleep. I'm starting to get it now, thank you very much. So if the critical region was n+1,would n also be part of it? Or is it n+2?
            $endgroup$
            – Jia Xuan Ng
            Jan 10 at 7:58










          • $begingroup$
            @JiaXuanNg No problem. I appreciate to get a reply, but it musn´t be immediately. No, the critical region goes from the critical value to n. See my edit. At the table the yellow marked row refers to your case. If the lower bound is $c=n-1$ then the probablity of the critical region is $sum_{i=c}^n B(i| p_0,n)=sumlimits_{i=n-1}^n B(i| k,n)$
            $endgroup$
            – callculus
            Jan 10 at 21:06












          • $begingroup$
            Ooh, I think I understand it now. I'm going to practice doing this types of questions. Thank you again!
            $endgroup$
            – Jia Xuan Ng
            Jan 11 at 7:53














          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          If the alternative hypothesis is $H_1: p>k$ then it is an right tailed test, where $c$ is the critical value. If the critical value is part of the critical region, then the critical region is ${c,c+1,ldots, n}$.



          In your case $c=n-1$. Therefore the critical region is ${n-1, n}$. The largest element is always $n$. Now you sum up these probabilities:



          $$sum_{x=n-1}^{n} binom{n}{x}cdot k^xcdot (1-k)^{n-x}$$



          $$=binom{n}{n-1}cdot k^{n-1}cdot (1-k)^{1}+binom{n}{n}cdot k^{n}cdot (1-k)^{0}=ncdot k^{n-1}cdot (1-k)+k^n$$



          enter image description here



          The source is german wiki (translated).



          $alpha$ is the significance level.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          If the alternative hypothesis is $H_1: p>k$ then it is an right tailed test, where $c$ is the critical value. If the critical value is part of the critical region, then the critical region is ${c,c+1,ldots, n}$.



          In your case $c=n-1$. Therefore the critical region is ${n-1, n}$. The largest element is always $n$. Now you sum up these probabilities:



          $$sum_{x=n-1}^{n} binom{n}{x}cdot k^xcdot (1-k)^{n-x}$$



          $$=binom{n}{n-1}cdot k^{n-1}cdot (1-k)^{1}+binom{n}{n}cdot k^{n}cdot (1-k)^{0}=ncdot k^{n-1}cdot (1-k)+k^n$$



          enter image description here



          The source is german wiki (translated).



          $alpha$ is the significance level.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jan 10 at 21:04

























          answered Jan 9 at 20:59









          callculuscallculus

          18k31427




          18k31427












          • $begingroup$
            I'm still confused on the k$^n$ part, do you do another binomial expansion but use n instead of n-1,and then add the two together?
            $endgroup$
            – Jia Xuan Ng
            Jan 9 at 22:57










          • $begingroup$
            @JiaXuanNg It has less to do with binomial expansion than the probabilities $P(X=n-1)$ and $P(X=n)$, where $Xsim Bin(n, k)$. I´ve calculated these two probabilities since $n-1$ and $n$ are the elements of the critical region. And yes, you have to add together since we want the probability for the (whole) critical region. Please, give a reply if you have additional questions or not.
            $endgroup$
            – callculus
            Jan 10 at 0:54












          • $begingroup$
            Sorry, was asleep. I'm starting to get it now, thank you very much. So if the critical region was n+1,would n also be part of it? Or is it n+2?
            $endgroup$
            – Jia Xuan Ng
            Jan 10 at 7:58










          • $begingroup$
            @JiaXuanNg No problem. I appreciate to get a reply, but it musn´t be immediately. No, the critical region goes from the critical value to n. See my edit. At the table the yellow marked row refers to your case. If the lower bound is $c=n-1$ then the probablity of the critical region is $sum_{i=c}^n B(i| p_0,n)=sumlimits_{i=n-1}^n B(i| k,n)$
            $endgroup$
            – callculus
            Jan 10 at 21:06












          • $begingroup$
            Ooh, I think I understand it now. I'm going to practice doing this types of questions. Thank you again!
            $endgroup$
            – Jia Xuan Ng
            Jan 11 at 7:53


















          • $begingroup$
            I'm still confused on the k$^n$ part, do you do another binomial expansion but use n instead of n-1,and then add the two together?
            $endgroup$
            – Jia Xuan Ng
            Jan 9 at 22:57










          • $begingroup$
            @JiaXuanNg It has less to do with binomial expansion than the probabilities $P(X=n-1)$ and $P(X=n)$, where $Xsim Bin(n, k)$. I´ve calculated these two probabilities since $n-1$ and $n$ are the elements of the critical region. And yes, you have to add together since we want the probability for the (whole) critical region. Please, give a reply if you have additional questions or not.
            $endgroup$
            – callculus
            Jan 10 at 0:54












          • $begingroup$
            Sorry, was asleep. I'm starting to get it now, thank you very much. So if the critical region was n+1,would n also be part of it? Or is it n+2?
            $endgroup$
            – Jia Xuan Ng
            Jan 10 at 7:58










          • $begingroup$
            @JiaXuanNg No problem. I appreciate to get a reply, but it musn´t be immediately. No, the critical region goes from the critical value to n. See my edit. At the table the yellow marked row refers to your case. If the lower bound is $c=n-1$ then the probablity of the critical region is $sum_{i=c}^n B(i| p_0,n)=sumlimits_{i=n-1}^n B(i| k,n)$
            $endgroup$
            – callculus
            Jan 10 at 21:06












          • $begingroup$
            Ooh, I think I understand it now. I'm going to practice doing this types of questions. Thank you again!
            $endgroup$
            – Jia Xuan Ng
            Jan 11 at 7:53
















          $begingroup$
          I'm still confused on the k$^n$ part, do you do another binomial expansion but use n instead of n-1,and then add the two together?
          $endgroup$
          – Jia Xuan Ng
          Jan 9 at 22:57




          $begingroup$
          I'm still confused on the k$^n$ part, do you do another binomial expansion but use n instead of n-1,and then add the two together?
          $endgroup$
          – Jia Xuan Ng
          Jan 9 at 22:57












          $begingroup$
          @JiaXuanNg It has less to do with binomial expansion than the probabilities $P(X=n-1)$ and $P(X=n)$, where $Xsim Bin(n, k)$. I´ve calculated these two probabilities since $n-1$ and $n$ are the elements of the critical region. And yes, you have to add together since we want the probability for the (whole) critical region. Please, give a reply if you have additional questions or not.
          $endgroup$
          – callculus
          Jan 10 at 0:54






          $begingroup$
          @JiaXuanNg It has less to do with binomial expansion than the probabilities $P(X=n-1)$ and $P(X=n)$, where $Xsim Bin(n, k)$. I´ve calculated these two probabilities since $n-1$ and $n$ are the elements of the critical region. And yes, you have to add together since we want the probability for the (whole) critical region. Please, give a reply if you have additional questions or not.
          $endgroup$
          – callculus
          Jan 10 at 0:54














          $begingroup$
          Sorry, was asleep. I'm starting to get it now, thank you very much. So if the critical region was n+1,would n also be part of it? Or is it n+2?
          $endgroup$
          – Jia Xuan Ng
          Jan 10 at 7:58




          $begingroup$
          Sorry, was asleep. I'm starting to get it now, thank you very much. So if the critical region was n+1,would n also be part of it? Or is it n+2?
          $endgroup$
          – Jia Xuan Ng
          Jan 10 at 7:58












          $begingroup$
          @JiaXuanNg No problem. I appreciate to get a reply, but it musn´t be immediately. No, the critical region goes from the critical value to n. See my edit. At the table the yellow marked row refers to your case. If the lower bound is $c=n-1$ then the probablity of the critical region is $sum_{i=c}^n B(i| p_0,n)=sumlimits_{i=n-1}^n B(i| k,n)$
          $endgroup$
          – callculus
          Jan 10 at 21:06






          $begingroup$
          @JiaXuanNg No problem. I appreciate to get a reply, but it musn´t be immediately. No, the critical region goes from the critical value to n. See my edit. At the table the yellow marked row refers to your case. If the lower bound is $c=n-1$ then the probablity of the critical region is $sum_{i=c}^n B(i| p_0,n)=sumlimits_{i=n-1}^n B(i| k,n)$
          $endgroup$
          – callculus
          Jan 10 at 21:06














          $begingroup$
          Ooh, I think I understand it now. I'm going to practice doing this types of questions. Thank you again!
          $endgroup$
          – Jia Xuan Ng
          Jan 11 at 7:53




          $begingroup$
          Ooh, I think I understand it now. I'm going to practice doing this types of questions. Thank you again!
          $endgroup$
          – Jia Xuan Ng
          Jan 11 at 7:53



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