Is there a non-zero measure on $mathbb{R}^2$ such that all subsets of $mathbb{R}^2$ are measurable?












0












$begingroup$


1) Everywhere one can find many things about Lebesgue measure on $mathbb{R}^2$.
But what about arbitary measure? Is there a non-zero measure on $mathbb{R}^2$ such that all subsets of $mathbb{R}^2$ are measurable?



2) Another variant of the question:



Is there a measure on $mathbb{R}^2$ such that the measure of a unit square is one, the measure is invariant under isometries and all subsets of $mathbb{R}^2$ are measurable?



EDITED: I miss one important condition that a mesure of any bounded set should be finite.










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$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    To answer 1): Let $m(varnothing)=0$ and $m(A)=infty$ for all $Aneqvarnothing$.
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Jan 21 at 11:21










  • $begingroup$
    2) can be easily answered using an analogue of Vitali set.
    $endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Jan 21 at 11:23










  • $begingroup$
    Okay, I mean something non-trivial for the question 1.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex-omsk
    Jan 21 at 11:30








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    As non-trivial measure for 1), there is the counting measure
    $endgroup$
    – Bermudes
    Jan 21 at 11:31






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    An answer to 1) with unit square having measure $1$ would be any dirac measure of a point in the unit square. (Let $p$ be such a point and $m(A)=1$ iff $pin A$, $0$ otherwise.)
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Jan 21 at 11:36
















0












$begingroup$


1) Everywhere one can find many things about Lebesgue measure on $mathbb{R}^2$.
But what about arbitary measure? Is there a non-zero measure on $mathbb{R}^2$ such that all subsets of $mathbb{R}^2$ are measurable?



2) Another variant of the question:



Is there a measure on $mathbb{R}^2$ such that the measure of a unit square is one, the measure is invariant under isometries and all subsets of $mathbb{R}^2$ are measurable?



EDITED: I miss one important condition that a mesure of any bounded set should be finite.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    To answer 1): Let $m(varnothing)=0$ and $m(A)=infty$ for all $Aneqvarnothing$.
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Jan 21 at 11:21










  • $begingroup$
    2) can be easily answered using an analogue of Vitali set.
    $endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Jan 21 at 11:23










  • $begingroup$
    Okay, I mean something non-trivial for the question 1.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex-omsk
    Jan 21 at 11:30








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    As non-trivial measure for 1), there is the counting measure
    $endgroup$
    – Bermudes
    Jan 21 at 11:31






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    An answer to 1) with unit square having measure $1$ would be any dirac measure of a point in the unit square. (Let $p$ be such a point and $m(A)=1$ iff $pin A$, $0$ otherwise.)
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Jan 21 at 11:36














0












0








0





$begingroup$


1) Everywhere one can find many things about Lebesgue measure on $mathbb{R}^2$.
But what about arbitary measure? Is there a non-zero measure on $mathbb{R}^2$ such that all subsets of $mathbb{R}^2$ are measurable?



2) Another variant of the question:



Is there a measure on $mathbb{R}^2$ such that the measure of a unit square is one, the measure is invariant under isometries and all subsets of $mathbb{R}^2$ are measurable?



EDITED: I miss one important condition that a mesure of any bounded set should be finite.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




1) Everywhere one can find many things about Lebesgue measure on $mathbb{R}^2$.
But what about arbitary measure? Is there a non-zero measure on $mathbb{R}^2$ such that all subsets of $mathbb{R}^2$ are measurable?



2) Another variant of the question:



Is there a measure on $mathbb{R}^2$ such that the measure of a unit square is one, the measure is invariant under isometries and all subsets of $mathbb{R}^2$ are measurable?



EDITED: I miss one important condition that a mesure of any bounded set should be finite.







measure-theory






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 21 at 11:36







Alex-omsk

















asked Jan 21 at 11:18









Alex-omskAlex-omsk

1558




1558








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    To answer 1): Let $m(varnothing)=0$ and $m(A)=infty$ for all $Aneqvarnothing$.
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Jan 21 at 11:21










  • $begingroup$
    2) can be easily answered using an analogue of Vitali set.
    $endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Jan 21 at 11:23










  • $begingroup$
    Okay, I mean something non-trivial for the question 1.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex-omsk
    Jan 21 at 11:30








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    As non-trivial measure for 1), there is the counting measure
    $endgroup$
    – Bermudes
    Jan 21 at 11:31






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    An answer to 1) with unit square having measure $1$ would be any dirac measure of a point in the unit square. (Let $p$ be such a point and $m(A)=1$ iff $pin A$, $0$ otherwise.)
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Jan 21 at 11:36














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    To answer 1): Let $m(varnothing)=0$ and $m(A)=infty$ for all $Aneqvarnothing$.
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Jan 21 at 11:21










  • $begingroup$
    2) can be easily answered using an analogue of Vitali set.
    $endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Jan 21 at 11:23










  • $begingroup$
    Okay, I mean something non-trivial for the question 1.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex-omsk
    Jan 21 at 11:30








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    As non-trivial measure for 1), there is the counting measure
    $endgroup$
    – Bermudes
    Jan 21 at 11:31






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    An answer to 1) with unit square having measure $1$ would be any dirac measure of a point in the unit square. (Let $p$ be such a point and $m(A)=1$ iff $pin A$, $0$ otherwise.)
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Jan 21 at 11:36








1




1




$begingroup$
To answer 1): Let $m(varnothing)=0$ and $m(A)=infty$ for all $Aneqvarnothing$.
$endgroup$
– Christoph
Jan 21 at 11:21




$begingroup$
To answer 1): Let $m(varnothing)=0$ and $m(A)=infty$ for all $Aneqvarnothing$.
$endgroup$
– Christoph
Jan 21 at 11:21












$begingroup$
2) can be easily answered using an analogue of Vitali set.
$endgroup$
– Wojowu
Jan 21 at 11:23




$begingroup$
2) can be easily answered using an analogue of Vitali set.
$endgroup$
– Wojowu
Jan 21 at 11:23












$begingroup$
Okay, I mean something non-trivial for the question 1.
$endgroup$
– Alex-omsk
Jan 21 at 11:30






$begingroup$
Okay, I mean something non-trivial for the question 1.
$endgroup$
– Alex-omsk
Jan 21 at 11:30






2




2




$begingroup$
As non-trivial measure for 1), there is the counting measure
$endgroup$
– Bermudes
Jan 21 at 11:31




$begingroup$
As non-trivial measure for 1), there is the counting measure
$endgroup$
– Bermudes
Jan 21 at 11:31




2




2




$begingroup$
An answer to 1) with unit square having measure $1$ would be any dirac measure of a point in the unit square. (Let $p$ be such a point and $m(A)=1$ iff $pin A$, $0$ otherwise.)
$endgroup$
– Christoph
Jan 21 at 11:36




$begingroup$
An answer to 1) with unit square having measure $1$ would be any dirac measure of a point in the unit square. (Let $p$ be such a point and $m(A)=1$ iff $pin A$, $0$ otherwise.)
$endgroup$
– Christoph
Jan 21 at 11:36










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