Likelihood ratio test at level $alpha.$ (Verification)












1












$begingroup$


We have an observation $X_1$ distributed with a density function
$$f_{theta}(x)=frac{theta}{(x+theta)^2}$$
for $xgeq 0$, otherwise $f_{theta}(x)=0.$ Here we assume that $theta>0.$ We want to test the Hypothesis $H_0:theta = theta_0$ vs. $H_1:theta = theta_1$ where $theta_0<theta_1.$



For this, we write the likelihood ratio:
$$Lambda(X_1,H_1,H_0)=frac{mathcal{L}(theta_1;X_1)}{mathcal{L}(theta_0;X_1)} = frac{theta_1}{theta_0}cdot left(frac{x_1+theta_0}{x_1+theta_1}right)^2.$$
Then the derivative of this ratio is
$$frac{2left(x_1+theta_0right)left(theta_1-theta_0right)}{left(x_1+theta_1right)^3}>0$$
and so the ratio is increasing as a function of $x_1.$



This means that the likelihood ratio test function is



$$ phi_{alpha}(x) =
begin{cases}
1 & x_1>c_{alpha} \
gamma_{alpha} & x_1 =c_{alpha} \
0 & x_1 <c_{alpha}
end{cases}
$$

where we need to find $c_{alpha}$ and $gamma_{alpha}.$ We know that if the significance of the test is $alpha$ then
$$alpha = E_{theta_{0}}[phi_{alpha}(X)] = P_{theta_0}(x_1<c_{alpha}) + gamma_{alpha}P_{theta_0}(x_1=c_{alpha}).$$



We know that $P_{theta_0}(x_1<c_{alpha}) = int_{0}^{c_{alpha}}frac{theta_0}{(theta_0+x)^2}dx = frac{c_{alpha}}{c_{alpha} + theta_0}.$
We thus see that taking $gamma_{alpha}=0$ and $c_{alpha} =frac{alpha theta_0}{1-alpha}$ works.



This gives us our most powerful test at level $alpha$



$$ phi_{alpha}(x) =
begin{cases}
1 & x>frac{alpha theta_0}{1-alpha} \
0 & text{otherwise}
end{cases}.
$$



I finally compute the Type II risk which is
$$P_{theta_1}(phi(x) = 0)= P_{theta_1}left(xleq frac{alpha theta_0}{1-alpha}right) = frac{alpha theta_0}{alpha theta_0 + (1-alpha)theta_1}.$$



Are these calculations correct?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    We have an observation $X_1$ distributed with a density function
    $$f_{theta}(x)=frac{theta}{(x+theta)^2}$$
    for $xgeq 0$, otherwise $f_{theta}(x)=0.$ Here we assume that $theta>0.$ We want to test the Hypothesis $H_0:theta = theta_0$ vs. $H_1:theta = theta_1$ where $theta_0<theta_1.$



    For this, we write the likelihood ratio:
    $$Lambda(X_1,H_1,H_0)=frac{mathcal{L}(theta_1;X_1)}{mathcal{L}(theta_0;X_1)} = frac{theta_1}{theta_0}cdot left(frac{x_1+theta_0}{x_1+theta_1}right)^2.$$
    Then the derivative of this ratio is
    $$frac{2left(x_1+theta_0right)left(theta_1-theta_0right)}{left(x_1+theta_1right)^3}>0$$
    and so the ratio is increasing as a function of $x_1.$



    This means that the likelihood ratio test function is



    $$ phi_{alpha}(x) =
    begin{cases}
    1 & x_1>c_{alpha} \
    gamma_{alpha} & x_1 =c_{alpha} \
    0 & x_1 <c_{alpha}
    end{cases}
    $$

    where we need to find $c_{alpha}$ and $gamma_{alpha}.$ We know that if the significance of the test is $alpha$ then
    $$alpha = E_{theta_{0}}[phi_{alpha}(X)] = P_{theta_0}(x_1<c_{alpha}) + gamma_{alpha}P_{theta_0}(x_1=c_{alpha}).$$



    We know that $P_{theta_0}(x_1<c_{alpha}) = int_{0}^{c_{alpha}}frac{theta_0}{(theta_0+x)^2}dx = frac{c_{alpha}}{c_{alpha} + theta_0}.$
    We thus see that taking $gamma_{alpha}=0$ and $c_{alpha} =frac{alpha theta_0}{1-alpha}$ works.



    This gives us our most powerful test at level $alpha$



    $$ phi_{alpha}(x) =
    begin{cases}
    1 & x>frac{alpha theta_0}{1-alpha} \
    0 & text{otherwise}
    end{cases}.
    $$



    I finally compute the Type II risk which is
    $$P_{theta_1}(phi(x) = 0)= P_{theta_1}left(xleq frac{alpha theta_0}{1-alpha}right) = frac{alpha theta_0}{alpha theta_0 + (1-alpha)theta_1}.$$



    Are these calculations correct?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      We have an observation $X_1$ distributed with a density function
      $$f_{theta}(x)=frac{theta}{(x+theta)^2}$$
      for $xgeq 0$, otherwise $f_{theta}(x)=0.$ Here we assume that $theta>0.$ We want to test the Hypothesis $H_0:theta = theta_0$ vs. $H_1:theta = theta_1$ where $theta_0<theta_1.$



      For this, we write the likelihood ratio:
      $$Lambda(X_1,H_1,H_0)=frac{mathcal{L}(theta_1;X_1)}{mathcal{L}(theta_0;X_1)} = frac{theta_1}{theta_0}cdot left(frac{x_1+theta_0}{x_1+theta_1}right)^2.$$
      Then the derivative of this ratio is
      $$frac{2left(x_1+theta_0right)left(theta_1-theta_0right)}{left(x_1+theta_1right)^3}>0$$
      and so the ratio is increasing as a function of $x_1.$



      This means that the likelihood ratio test function is



      $$ phi_{alpha}(x) =
      begin{cases}
      1 & x_1>c_{alpha} \
      gamma_{alpha} & x_1 =c_{alpha} \
      0 & x_1 <c_{alpha}
      end{cases}
      $$

      where we need to find $c_{alpha}$ and $gamma_{alpha}.$ We know that if the significance of the test is $alpha$ then
      $$alpha = E_{theta_{0}}[phi_{alpha}(X)] = P_{theta_0}(x_1<c_{alpha}) + gamma_{alpha}P_{theta_0}(x_1=c_{alpha}).$$



      We know that $P_{theta_0}(x_1<c_{alpha}) = int_{0}^{c_{alpha}}frac{theta_0}{(theta_0+x)^2}dx = frac{c_{alpha}}{c_{alpha} + theta_0}.$
      We thus see that taking $gamma_{alpha}=0$ and $c_{alpha} =frac{alpha theta_0}{1-alpha}$ works.



      This gives us our most powerful test at level $alpha$



      $$ phi_{alpha}(x) =
      begin{cases}
      1 & x>frac{alpha theta_0}{1-alpha} \
      0 & text{otherwise}
      end{cases}.
      $$



      I finally compute the Type II risk which is
      $$P_{theta_1}(phi(x) = 0)= P_{theta_1}left(xleq frac{alpha theta_0}{1-alpha}right) = frac{alpha theta_0}{alpha theta_0 + (1-alpha)theta_1}.$$



      Are these calculations correct?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      We have an observation $X_1$ distributed with a density function
      $$f_{theta}(x)=frac{theta}{(x+theta)^2}$$
      for $xgeq 0$, otherwise $f_{theta}(x)=0.$ Here we assume that $theta>0.$ We want to test the Hypothesis $H_0:theta = theta_0$ vs. $H_1:theta = theta_1$ where $theta_0<theta_1.$



      For this, we write the likelihood ratio:
      $$Lambda(X_1,H_1,H_0)=frac{mathcal{L}(theta_1;X_1)}{mathcal{L}(theta_0;X_1)} = frac{theta_1}{theta_0}cdot left(frac{x_1+theta_0}{x_1+theta_1}right)^2.$$
      Then the derivative of this ratio is
      $$frac{2left(x_1+theta_0right)left(theta_1-theta_0right)}{left(x_1+theta_1right)^3}>0$$
      and so the ratio is increasing as a function of $x_1.$



      This means that the likelihood ratio test function is



      $$ phi_{alpha}(x) =
      begin{cases}
      1 & x_1>c_{alpha} \
      gamma_{alpha} & x_1 =c_{alpha} \
      0 & x_1 <c_{alpha}
      end{cases}
      $$

      where we need to find $c_{alpha}$ and $gamma_{alpha}.$ We know that if the significance of the test is $alpha$ then
      $$alpha = E_{theta_{0}}[phi_{alpha}(X)] = P_{theta_0}(x_1<c_{alpha}) + gamma_{alpha}P_{theta_0}(x_1=c_{alpha}).$$



      We know that $P_{theta_0}(x_1<c_{alpha}) = int_{0}^{c_{alpha}}frac{theta_0}{(theta_0+x)^2}dx = frac{c_{alpha}}{c_{alpha} + theta_0}.$
      We thus see that taking $gamma_{alpha}=0$ and $c_{alpha} =frac{alpha theta_0}{1-alpha}$ works.



      This gives us our most powerful test at level $alpha$



      $$ phi_{alpha}(x) =
      begin{cases}
      1 & x>frac{alpha theta_0}{1-alpha} \
      0 & text{otherwise}
      end{cases}.
      $$



      I finally compute the Type II risk which is
      $$P_{theta_1}(phi(x) = 0)= P_{theta_1}left(xleq frac{alpha theta_0}{1-alpha}right) = frac{alpha theta_0}{alpha theta_0 + (1-alpha)theta_1}.$$



      Are these calculations correct?







      statistics maximum-likelihood






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











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      asked Jan 21 at 12:30









      Hello_WorldHello_World

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