orthonormal basis of infinite dimensional Hilbert space H is not a basis of H as vector space?












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Apparently the orthonormal basis $(e_n)_{nin mathbb{N}}$ of the Hilbert space $H$ (in special case, infinitly dimensional) is not a basis of $H$ as a vectorspace. Is there a way to prove this?










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  • $begingroup$
    You mean Hamel basis?
    $endgroup$
    – gabriele cassese
    Jan 21 at 12:40
















0












$begingroup$


Apparently the orthonormal basis $(e_n)_{nin mathbb{N}}$ of the Hilbert space $H$ (in special case, infinitly dimensional) is not a basis of $H$ as a vectorspace. Is there a way to prove this?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    You mean Hamel basis?
    $endgroup$
    – gabriele cassese
    Jan 21 at 12:40














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Apparently the orthonormal basis $(e_n)_{nin mathbb{N}}$ of the Hilbert space $H$ (in special case, infinitly dimensional) is not a basis of $H$ as a vectorspace. Is there a way to prove this?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Apparently the orthonormal basis $(e_n)_{nin mathbb{N}}$ of the Hilbert space $H$ (in special case, infinitly dimensional) is not a basis of $H$ as a vectorspace. Is there a way to prove this?







real-analysis functional-analysis vector-spaces hilbert-spaces orthonormal






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asked Jan 21 at 12:37









JudithJudith

61




61












  • $begingroup$
    You mean Hamel basis?
    $endgroup$
    – gabriele cassese
    Jan 21 at 12:40


















  • $begingroup$
    You mean Hamel basis?
    $endgroup$
    – gabriele cassese
    Jan 21 at 12:40
















$begingroup$
You mean Hamel basis?
$endgroup$
– gabriele cassese
Jan 21 at 12:40




$begingroup$
You mean Hamel basis?
$endgroup$
– gabriele cassese
Jan 21 at 12:40










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

Every vector space basis of an infinite dimensional Banach or Hilbert space is necessarily uncountable. This is actually a non-trivial result and follows from the Baire category theorem, see e.g. Let $X$ be an infinite dimensional Banach space. Prove that every Hamel basis of X is uncountable.






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$endgroup$





















    2












    $begingroup$

    First show or recall that every $xin H$ has a unique representation $$x=sum a_ne_n,$$with $sum|a_n|^2<infty$. So if $$x=sum_{n=1}^infty e_n/n$$then the uniqueness shows that $x$ is not a (finite) linear combination of the $e_n$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$





















      -1












      $begingroup$

      A basis means that for everu $uin H$ you have $u=a_{i_1}e_{i_1}+...+a_{i_n}e_{i_n}$ for $n$ finite, and orthogonal basis means that $u=sum_{ngeq 0}a_ne_n$ where the sequence $sum_{i=0}^{i=n}a_ie_i$ converges, so for orthogonal basis, all the coefficients may not be zero.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$









      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @Judith think about $v=(1, 1/2^2, ldots, 1/n^2, ldots)$. Then, $v$ can't be written as a finite linear sum of $ (e_{n})$ (why?). But $sum_{i=1}^{n} (1/i^2) e_{i}$ converges to $v$.Also, $(e_{n})$ are the Schauder's basis not the Hamel basis for the given Hilbert space.
        $endgroup$
        – Shubham Namdeo
        Jan 21 at 12:57













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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      2












      $begingroup$

      Every vector space basis of an infinite dimensional Banach or Hilbert space is necessarily uncountable. This is actually a non-trivial result and follows from the Baire category theorem, see e.g. Let $X$ be an infinite dimensional Banach space. Prove that every Hamel basis of X is uncountable.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        2












        $begingroup$

        Every vector space basis of an infinite dimensional Banach or Hilbert space is necessarily uncountable. This is actually a non-trivial result and follows from the Baire category theorem, see e.g. Let $X$ be an infinite dimensional Banach space. Prove that every Hamel basis of X is uncountable.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          Every vector space basis of an infinite dimensional Banach or Hilbert space is necessarily uncountable. This is actually a non-trivial result and follows from the Baire category theorem, see e.g. Let $X$ be an infinite dimensional Banach space. Prove that every Hamel basis of X is uncountable.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Every vector space basis of an infinite dimensional Banach or Hilbert space is necessarily uncountable. This is actually a non-trivial result and follows from the Baire category theorem, see e.g. Let $X$ be an infinite dimensional Banach space. Prove that every Hamel basis of X is uncountable.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 21 at 13:02









          KlausKlaus

          2,12711




          2,12711























              2












              $begingroup$

              First show or recall that every $xin H$ has a unique representation $$x=sum a_ne_n,$$with $sum|a_n|^2<infty$. So if $$x=sum_{n=1}^infty e_n/n$$then the uniqueness shows that $x$ is not a (finite) linear combination of the $e_n$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                2












                $begingroup$

                First show or recall that every $xin H$ has a unique representation $$x=sum a_ne_n,$$with $sum|a_n|^2<infty$. So if $$x=sum_{n=1}^infty e_n/n$$then the uniqueness shows that $x$ is not a (finite) linear combination of the $e_n$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  2












                  2








                  2





                  $begingroup$

                  First show or recall that every $xin H$ has a unique representation $$x=sum a_ne_n,$$with $sum|a_n|^2<infty$. So if $$x=sum_{n=1}^infty e_n/n$$then the uniqueness shows that $x$ is not a (finite) linear combination of the $e_n$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  First show or recall that every $xin H$ has a unique representation $$x=sum a_ne_n,$$with $sum|a_n|^2<infty$. So if $$x=sum_{n=1}^infty e_n/n$$then the uniqueness shows that $x$ is not a (finite) linear combination of the $e_n$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Jan 21 at 13:34









                  David C. UllrichDavid C. Ullrich

                  61.2k43994




                  61.2k43994























                      -1












                      $begingroup$

                      A basis means that for everu $uin H$ you have $u=a_{i_1}e_{i_1}+...+a_{i_n}e_{i_n}$ for $n$ finite, and orthogonal basis means that $u=sum_{ngeq 0}a_ne_n$ where the sequence $sum_{i=0}^{i=n}a_ie_i$ converges, so for orthogonal basis, all the coefficients may not be zero.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$









                      • 1




                        $begingroup$
                        @Judith think about $v=(1, 1/2^2, ldots, 1/n^2, ldots)$. Then, $v$ can't be written as a finite linear sum of $ (e_{n})$ (why?). But $sum_{i=1}^{n} (1/i^2) e_{i}$ converges to $v$.Also, $(e_{n})$ are the Schauder's basis not the Hamel basis for the given Hilbert space.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Shubham Namdeo
                        Jan 21 at 12:57


















                      -1












                      $begingroup$

                      A basis means that for everu $uin H$ you have $u=a_{i_1}e_{i_1}+...+a_{i_n}e_{i_n}$ for $n$ finite, and orthogonal basis means that $u=sum_{ngeq 0}a_ne_n$ where the sequence $sum_{i=0}^{i=n}a_ie_i$ converges, so for orthogonal basis, all the coefficients may not be zero.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$









                      • 1




                        $begingroup$
                        @Judith think about $v=(1, 1/2^2, ldots, 1/n^2, ldots)$. Then, $v$ can't be written as a finite linear sum of $ (e_{n})$ (why?). But $sum_{i=1}^{n} (1/i^2) e_{i}$ converges to $v$.Also, $(e_{n})$ are the Schauder's basis not the Hamel basis for the given Hilbert space.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Shubham Namdeo
                        Jan 21 at 12:57
















                      -1












                      -1








                      -1





                      $begingroup$

                      A basis means that for everu $uin H$ you have $u=a_{i_1}e_{i_1}+...+a_{i_n}e_{i_n}$ for $n$ finite, and orthogonal basis means that $u=sum_{ngeq 0}a_ne_n$ where the sequence $sum_{i=0}^{i=n}a_ie_i$ converges, so for orthogonal basis, all the coefficients may not be zero.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$



                      A basis means that for everu $uin H$ you have $u=a_{i_1}e_{i_1}+...+a_{i_n}e_{i_n}$ for $n$ finite, and orthogonal basis means that $u=sum_{ngeq 0}a_ne_n$ where the sequence $sum_{i=0}^{i=n}a_ie_i$ converges, so for orthogonal basis, all the coefficients may not be zero.







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Jan 21 at 12:40









                      Tsemo AristideTsemo Aristide

                      59.1k11445




                      59.1k11445








                      • 1




                        $begingroup$
                        @Judith think about $v=(1, 1/2^2, ldots, 1/n^2, ldots)$. Then, $v$ can't be written as a finite linear sum of $ (e_{n})$ (why?). But $sum_{i=1}^{n} (1/i^2) e_{i}$ converges to $v$.Also, $(e_{n})$ are the Schauder's basis not the Hamel basis for the given Hilbert space.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Shubham Namdeo
                        Jan 21 at 12:57
















                      • 1




                        $begingroup$
                        @Judith think about $v=(1, 1/2^2, ldots, 1/n^2, ldots)$. Then, $v$ can't be written as a finite linear sum of $ (e_{n})$ (why?). But $sum_{i=1}^{n} (1/i^2) e_{i}$ converges to $v$.Also, $(e_{n})$ are the Schauder's basis not the Hamel basis for the given Hilbert space.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Shubham Namdeo
                        Jan 21 at 12:57










                      1




                      1




                      $begingroup$
                      @Judith think about $v=(1, 1/2^2, ldots, 1/n^2, ldots)$. Then, $v$ can't be written as a finite linear sum of $ (e_{n})$ (why?). But $sum_{i=1}^{n} (1/i^2) e_{i}$ converges to $v$.Also, $(e_{n})$ are the Schauder's basis not the Hamel basis for the given Hilbert space.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Shubham Namdeo
                      Jan 21 at 12:57






                      $begingroup$
                      @Judith think about $v=(1, 1/2^2, ldots, 1/n^2, ldots)$. Then, $v$ can't be written as a finite linear sum of $ (e_{n})$ (why?). But $sum_{i=1}^{n} (1/i^2) e_{i}$ converges to $v$.Also, $(e_{n})$ are the Schauder's basis not the Hamel basis for the given Hilbert space.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Shubham Namdeo
                      Jan 21 at 12:57




















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