Converse of Jensen's inequality












0














Suppose $varphi:mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ and for all bounded measurable $f$,
$$
varphiBig(int_0^1fdlambdaBig) le int_0^1varphi(f)dlambda
$$

I'm asked to prove that $varphi$ is a convex function.
I have no idea how to even begin, only idea I've had is to try to suppose that $varphi''(x)<0$ for some $xin(0,1)$ but then I haven't got a clue.










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  • 1




    This is much simpler than the Jensen's inequality itself. Just recall the definition of convexity, and try to pick your $f$ to arrive at it exactly.
    – metamorphy
    Nov 21 '18 at 16:13
















0














Suppose $varphi:mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ and for all bounded measurable $f$,
$$
varphiBig(int_0^1fdlambdaBig) le int_0^1varphi(f)dlambda
$$

I'm asked to prove that $varphi$ is a convex function.
I have no idea how to even begin, only idea I've had is to try to suppose that $varphi''(x)<0$ for some $xin(0,1)$ but then I haven't got a clue.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    This is much simpler than the Jensen's inequality itself. Just recall the definition of convexity, and try to pick your $f$ to arrive at it exactly.
    – metamorphy
    Nov 21 '18 at 16:13














0












0








0







Suppose $varphi:mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ and for all bounded measurable $f$,
$$
varphiBig(int_0^1fdlambdaBig) le int_0^1varphi(f)dlambda
$$

I'm asked to prove that $varphi$ is a convex function.
I have no idea how to even begin, only idea I've had is to try to suppose that $varphi''(x)<0$ for some $xin(0,1)$ but then I haven't got a clue.










share|cite|improve this question















Suppose $varphi:mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ and for all bounded measurable $f$,
$$
varphiBig(int_0^1fdlambdaBig) le int_0^1varphi(f)dlambda
$$

I'm asked to prove that $varphi$ is a convex function.
I have no idea how to even begin, only idea I've had is to try to suppose that $varphi''(x)<0$ for some $xin(0,1)$ but then I haven't got a clue.







measure-theory lebesgue-integral






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edited Nov 21 '18 at 18:48









Federico

4,799514




4,799514










asked Nov 21 '18 at 15:58









D. Brito

358111




358111








  • 1




    This is much simpler than the Jensen's inequality itself. Just recall the definition of convexity, and try to pick your $f$ to arrive at it exactly.
    – metamorphy
    Nov 21 '18 at 16:13














  • 1




    This is much simpler than the Jensen's inequality itself. Just recall the definition of convexity, and try to pick your $f$ to arrive at it exactly.
    – metamorphy
    Nov 21 '18 at 16:13








1




1




This is much simpler than the Jensen's inequality itself. Just recall the definition of convexity, and try to pick your $f$ to arrive at it exactly.
– metamorphy
Nov 21 '18 at 16:13




This is much simpler than the Jensen's inequality itself. Just recall the definition of convexity, and try to pick your $f$ to arrive at it exactly.
– metamorphy
Nov 21 '18 at 16:13










1 Answer
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Given $x,yinmathbb R$ and $tin(0,1)$, consider
$$
f(s) = begin{cases} x & sleq t \ y & s>t. end{cases}
$$

Then your inequality tells
$$
phi(tx+(1-t)y) leq tphi(x)+(1-t)phi(y).
$$






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    1














    Given $x,yinmathbb R$ and $tin(0,1)$, consider
    $$
    f(s) = begin{cases} x & sleq t \ y & s>t. end{cases}
    $$

    Then your inequality tells
    $$
    phi(tx+(1-t)y) leq tphi(x)+(1-t)phi(y).
    $$






    share|cite|improve this answer


























      1














      Given $x,yinmathbb R$ and $tin(0,1)$, consider
      $$
      f(s) = begin{cases} x & sleq t \ y & s>t. end{cases}
      $$

      Then your inequality tells
      $$
      phi(tx+(1-t)y) leq tphi(x)+(1-t)phi(y).
      $$






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        1












        1








        1






        Given $x,yinmathbb R$ and $tin(0,1)$, consider
        $$
        f(s) = begin{cases} x & sleq t \ y & s>t. end{cases}
        $$

        Then your inequality tells
        $$
        phi(tx+(1-t)y) leq tphi(x)+(1-t)phi(y).
        $$






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Given $x,yinmathbb R$ and $tin(0,1)$, consider
        $$
        f(s) = begin{cases} x & sleq t \ y & s>t. end{cases}
        $$

        Then your inequality tells
        $$
        phi(tx+(1-t)y) leq tphi(x)+(1-t)phi(y).
        $$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 21 '18 at 18:47









        Federico

        4,799514




        4,799514






























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