How do I evaluate this limit, using Sandwich Theorem? [duplicate]












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  • Show that $lim_{nrightarrow infty} sqrt[n]{c_1^n+c_2^n+ldots+c_m^n} = max{c_1,c_2,ldots,c_m}$ [duplicate]

    3 answers




Using Sandwich Theorem, how can I evaluate the limit for -
$$lim_{nto infty} (a^n+b^n)^{1/n}$$ where $a$ and $b$ are positive quantities and $b$ is greater than $a$.










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marked as duplicate by Hans Lundmark, lab bhattacharjee limits
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Jan 18 at 7:04


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.























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    This question already has an answer here:




    • Show that $lim_{nrightarrow infty} sqrt[n]{c_1^n+c_2^n+ldots+c_m^n} = max{c_1,c_2,ldots,c_m}$ [duplicate]

      3 answers




    Using Sandwich Theorem, how can I evaluate the limit for -
    $$lim_{nto infty} (a^n+b^n)^{1/n}$$ where $a$ and $b$ are positive quantities and $b$ is greater than $a$.










    share|cite|improve this question











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    Jan 18 at 7:04


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      This question already has an answer here:




      • Show that $lim_{nrightarrow infty} sqrt[n]{c_1^n+c_2^n+ldots+c_m^n} = max{c_1,c_2,ldots,c_m}$ [duplicate]

        3 answers




      Using Sandwich Theorem, how can I evaluate the limit for -
      $$lim_{nto infty} (a^n+b^n)^{1/n}$$ where $a$ and $b$ are positive quantities and $b$ is greater than $a$.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$





      This question already has an answer here:




      • Show that $lim_{nrightarrow infty} sqrt[n]{c_1^n+c_2^n+ldots+c_m^n} = max{c_1,c_2,ldots,c_m}$ [duplicate]

        3 answers




      Using Sandwich Theorem, how can I evaluate the limit for -
      $$lim_{nto infty} (a^n+b^n)^{1/n}$$ where $a$ and $b$ are positive quantities and $b$ is greater than $a$.





      This question already has an answer here:




      • Show that $lim_{nrightarrow infty} sqrt[n]{c_1^n+c_2^n+ldots+c_m^n} = max{c_1,c_2,ldots,c_m}$ [duplicate]

        3 answers








      limits limits-without-lhopital graph-limits






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      edited Jan 18 at 6:23









      Seewoo Lee

      6,959927




      6,959927










      asked Jan 18 at 6:03









      user574937user574937

      384




      384




      marked as duplicate by Hans Lundmark, lab bhattacharjee limits
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      Jan 18 at 7:04


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      marked as duplicate by Hans Lundmark, lab bhattacharjee limits
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      Jan 18 at 7:04


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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          4












          $begingroup$

          $$b < (a^{n} + b^{n})^{1/n} < 2^{1/n}b$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Can you please elaborate this? I am getting an idea but not so sure about it. Please help me out.
            $endgroup$
            – user574937
            Jan 18 at 18:36










          • $begingroup$
            @user574937 If you can show that the inequality is true, than we get the result from $lim_{ntoinfty} 2^{1/n} = 2^{lim_{nto infty} 1/n} = 1$ and the sandwitch theorem. To prove the inequality, take $n$th power of both sides and use $a<b$.
            $endgroup$
            – Seewoo Lee
            Jan 18 at 22:24










          • $begingroup$
            That part was understood. I mean, how did you get upon this conclusion? What and how did you thought?
            $endgroup$
            – user574937
            Jan 20 at 4:41










          • $begingroup$
            @user574937 If you want some intuition of the proof, since $a<b$, $b^{n}$ will be much bigger than $a^{n}$ when $n$ is very large. So in the sequence $(a^{n} + b^{n})^{1/n}$, $a^{n}$ may not affect the limit.
            $endgroup$
            – Seewoo Lee
            Jan 20 at 4:59


















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          4












          $begingroup$

          $$b < (a^{n} + b^{n})^{1/n} < 2^{1/n}b$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Can you please elaborate this? I am getting an idea but not so sure about it. Please help me out.
            $endgroup$
            – user574937
            Jan 18 at 18:36










          • $begingroup$
            @user574937 If you can show that the inequality is true, than we get the result from $lim_{ntoinfty} 2^{1/n} = 2^{lim_{nto infty} 1/n} = 1$ and the sandwitch theorem. To prove the inequality, take $n$th power of both sides and use $a<b$.
            $endgroup$
            – Seewoo Lee
            Jan 18 at 22:24










          • $begingroup$
            That part was understood. I mean, how did you get upon this conclusion? What and how did you thought?
            $endgroup$
            – user574937
            Jan 20 at 4:41










          • $begingroup$
            @user574937 If you want some intuition of the proof, since $a<b$, $b^{n}$ will be much bigger than $a^{n}$ when $n$ is very large. So in the sequence $(a^{n} + b^{n})^{1/n}$, $a^{n}$ may not affect the limit.
            $endgroup$
            – Seewoo Lee
            Jan 20 at 4:59
















          4












          $begingroup$

          $$b < (a^{n} + b^{n})^{1/n} < 2^{1/n}b$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Can you please elaborate this? I am getting an idea but not so sure about it. Please help me out.
            $endgroup$
            – user574937
            Jan 18 at 18:36










          • $begingroup$
            @user574937 If you can show that the inequality is true, than we get the result from $lim_{ntoinfty} 2^{1/n} = 2^{lim_{nto infty} 1/n} = 1$ and the sandwitch theorem. To prove the inequality, take $n$th power of both sides and use $a<b$.
            $endgroup$
            – Seewoo Lee
            Jan 18 at 22:24










          • $begingroup$
            That part was understood. I mean, how did you get upon this conclusion? What and how did you thought?
            $endgroup$
            – user574937
            Jan 20 at 4:41










          • $begingroup$
            @user574937 If you want some intuition of the proof, since $a<b$, $b^{n}$ will be much bigger than $a^{n}$ when $n$ is very large. So in the sequence $(a^{n} + b^{n})^{1/n}$, $a^{n}$ may not affect the limit.
            $endgroup$
            – Seewoo Lee
            Jan 20 at 4:59














          4












          4








          4





          $begingroup$

          $$b < (a^{n} + b^{n})^{1/n} < 2^{1/n}b$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          $$b < (a^{n} + b^{n})^{1/n} < 2^{1/n}b$$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 18 at 6:24









          Seewoo LeeSeewoo Lee

          6,959927




          6,959927












          • $begingroup$
            Can you please elaborate this? I am getting an idea but not so sure about it. Please help me out.
            $endgroup$
            – user574937
            Jan 18 at 18:36










          • $begingroup$
            @user574937 If you can show that the inequality is true, than we get the result from $lim_{ntoinfty} 2^{1/n} = 2^{lim_{nto infty} 1/n} = 1$ and the sandwitch theorem. To prove the inequality, take $n$th power of both sides and use $a<b$.
            $endgroup$
            – Seewoo Lee
            Jan 18 at 22:24










          • $begingroup$
            That part was understood. I mean, how did you get upon this conclusion? What and how did you thought?
            $endgroup$
            – user574937
            Jan 20 at 4:41










          • $begingroup$
            @user574937 If you want some intuition of the proof, since $a<b$, $b^{n}$ will be much bigger than $a^{n}$ when $n$ is very large. So in the sequence $(a^{n} + b^{n})^{1/n}$, $a^{n}$ may not affect the limit.
            $endgroup$
            – Seewoo Lee
            Jan 20 at 4:59


















          • $begingroup$
            Can you please elaborate this? I am getting an idea but not so sure about it. Please help me out.
            $endgroup$
            – user574937
            Jan 18 at 18:36










          • $begingroup$
            @user574937 If you can show that the inequality is true, than we get the result from $lim_{ntoinfty} 2^{1/n} = 2^{lim_{nto infty} 1/n} = 1$ and the sandwitch theorem. To prove the inequality, take $n$th power of both sides and use $a<b$.
            $endgroup$
            – Seewoo Lee
            Jan 18 at 22:24










          • $begingroup$
            That part was understood. I mean, how did you get upon this conclusion? What and how did you thought?
            $endgroup$
            – user574937
            Jan 20 at 4:41










          • $begingroup$
            @user574937 If you want some intuition of the proof, since $a<b$, $b^{n}$ will be much bigger than $a^{n}$ when $n$ is very large. So in the sequence $(a^{n} + b^{n})^{1/n}$, $a^{n}$ may not affect the limit.
            $endgroup$
            – Seewoo Lee
            Jan 20 at 4:59
















          $begingroup$
          Can you please elaborate this? I am getting an idea but not so sure about it. Please help me out.
          $endgroup$
          – user574937
          Jan 18 at 18:36




          $begingroup$
          Can you please elaborate this? I am getting an idea but not so sure about it. Please help me out.
          $endgroup$
          – user574937
          Jan 18 at 18:36












          $begingroup$
          @user574937 If you can show that the inequality is true, than we get the result from $lim_{ntoinfty} 2^{1/n} = 2^{lim_{nto infty} 1/n} = 1$ and the sandwitch theorem. To prove the inequality, take $n$th power of both sides and use $a<b$.
          $endgroup$
          – Seewoo Lee
          Jan 18 at 22:24




          $begingroup$
          @user574937 If you can show that the inequality is true, than we get the result from $lim_{ntoinfty} 2^{1/n} = 2^{lim_{nto infty} 1/n} = 1$ and the sandwitch theorem. To prove the inequality, take $n$th power of both sides and use $a<b$.
          $endgroup$
          – Seewoo Lee
          Jan 18 at 22:24












          $begingroup$
          That part was understood. I mean, how did you get upon this conclusion? What and how did you thought?
          $endgroup$
          – user574937
          Jan 20 at 4:41




          $begingroup$
          That part was understood. I mean, how did you get upon this conclusion? What and how did you thought?
          $endgroup$
          – user574937
          Jan 20 at 4:41












          $begingroup$
          @user574937 If you want some intuition of the proof, since $a<b$, $b^{n}$ will be much bigger than $a^{n}$ when $n$ is very large. So in the sequence $(a^{n} + b^{n})^{1/n}$, $a^{n}$ may not affect the limit.
          $endgroup$
          – Seewoo Lee
          Jan 20 at 4:59




          $begingroup$
          @user574937 If you want some intuition of the proof, since $a<b$, $b^{n}$ will be much bigger than $a^{n}$ when $n$ is very large. So in the sequence $(a^{n} + b^{n})^{1/n}$, $a^{n}$ may not affect the limit.
          $endgroup$
          – Seewoo Lee
          Jan 20 at 4:59



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