Markov matrices with no ones on off-diagonals don't have -1 as an eigen value
$begingroup$
Every time I saw a Markov matrix with an Eigen value of -1, it had some 1's on its off-diagonals. The most obvious example is a simple permutation matrix:
$$M = left(begin{array}{ccc}0&1\1&0end{array}right)$$
With eigen values 1 and -1. As soon as you subtract $epsilon$ from the 1's and add them to the 0's, the -1 eigen value decreases in magnitude.
For another example, see the matrix $M$ this answer. Again, an eigen value of -1 with multiple 1's on the off-diagonals.
Is there a way to prove or refute this claim?
All I have so far are examples to support it and haven't been able to come up with a direction for how to prove it.
Why do I care about this result? Because I'm considering Markov matrices formed from coin flips where the coins can never be one-sided. Such matrices might have 1's on their diagonals, but never on the off-diagonals.
If this is true, we can write for such a matrix $M$,
$$vM^n = c_1+c_2lambda_1^n+dots$$
Since $lambda_1$ and other eigen values must be $<1$, we can say as $n to infty$,
$$vM^n = c_1$$
linear-algebra matrices stochastic-processes eigenvalues-eigenvectors markov-chains
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Every time I saw a Markov matrix with an Eigen value of -1, it had some 1's on its off-diagonals. The most obvious example is a simple permutation matrix:
$$M = left(begin{array}{ccc}0&1\1&0end{array}right)$$
With eigen values 1 and -1. As soon as you subtract $epsilon$ from the 1's and add them to the 0's, the -1 eigen value decreases in magnitude.
For another example, see the matrix $M$ this answer. Again, an eigen value of -1 with multiple 1's on the off-diagonals.
Is there a way to prove or refute this claim?
All I have so far are examples to support it and haven't been able to come up with a direction for how to prove it.
Why do I care about this result? Because I'm considering Markov matrices formed from coin flips where the coins can never be one-sided. Such matrices might have 1's on their diagonals, but never on the off-diagonals.
If this is true, we can write for such a matrix $M$,
$$vM^n = c_1+c_2lambda_1^n+dots$$
Since $lambda_1$ and other eigen values must be $<1$, we can say as $n to infty$,
$$vM^n = c_1$$
linear-algebra matrices stochastic-processes eigenvalues-eigenvectors markov-chains
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Every time I saw a Markov matrix with an Eigen value of -1, it had some 1's on its off-diagonals. The most obvious example is a simple permutation matrix:
$$M = left(begin{array}{ccc}0&1\1&0end{array}right)$$
With eigen values 1 and -1. As soon as you subtract $epsilon$ from the 1's and add them to the 0's, the -1 eigen value decreases in magnitude.
For another example, see the matrix $M$ this answer. Again, an eigen value of -1 with multiple 1's on the off-diagonals.
Is there a way to prove or refute this claim?
All I have so far are examples to support it and haven't been able to come up with a direction for how to prove it.
Why do I care about this result? Because I'm considering Markov matrices formed from coin flips where the coins can never be one-sided. Such matrices might have 1's on their diagonals, but never on the off-diagonals.
If this is true, we can write for such a matrix $M$,
$$vM^n = c_1+c_2lambda_1^n+dots$$
Since $lambda_1$ and other eigen values must be $<1$, we can say as $n to infty$,
$$vM^n = c_1$$
linear-algebra matrices stochastic-processes eigenvalues-eigenvectors markov-chains
$endgroup$
Every time I saw a Markov matrix with an Eigen value of -1, it had some 1's on its off-diagonals. The most obvious example is a simple permutation matrix:
$$M = left(begin{array}{ccc}0&1\1&0end{array}right)$$
With eigen values 1 and -1. As soon as you subtract $epsilon$ from the 1's and add them to the 0's, the -1 eigen value decreases in magnitude.
For another example, see the matrix $M$ this answer. Again, an eigen value of -1 with multiple 1's on the off-diagonals.
Is there a way to prove or refute this claim?
All I have so far are examples to support it and haven't been able to come up with a direction for how to prove it.
Why do I care about this result? Because I'm considering Markov matrices formed from coin flips where the coins can never be one-sided. Such matrices might have 1's on their diagonals, but never on the off-diagonals.
If this is true, we can write for such a matrix $M$,
$$vM^n = c_1+c_2lambda_1^n+dots$$
Since $lambda_1$ and other eigen values must be $<1$, we can say as $n to infty$,
$$vM^n = c_1$$
linear-algebra matrices stochastic-processes eigenvalues-eigenvectors markov-chains
linear-algebra matrices stochastic-processes eigenvalues-eigenvectors markov-chains
asked Jan 18 at 8:05
Rohit PandeyRohit Pandey
1,4071022
1,4071022
add a comment |
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Yes, there's a way to refute the claim - a counterexample.
The matrix $begin{bmatrix}0&0½½\ 0&0½½\ frac12½&0&0\ frac12½&0&0end{bmatrix}$ has $-1$ as an eigenvalue with eigenvector $begin{bmatrix}1\1\-1\-1end{bmatrix}$.
Eigenvalues of $-1$ are associated with bipartite graphs; if every step alternates between two subgraphs, there will be an eigenvector for $-1$ weighting everything in one of those subgraphs positive and everything in the other negative. Other roots of unity are associated with directed cycles of longer lengths; they're less likely to come up unless you specifically rig the system to get them, but they're possible.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I thought I had... I shouldn't post so much in the wee hours, should I?
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Jan 18 at 13:55
$begingroup$
Thanks, is there a proof that alternating between subgraphs causes the matrix to have - 1 as an eigenvalue?
$endgroup$
– Rohit Pandey
Jan 18 at 16:44
$begingroup$
Actually, that's easy to see.. But how do we prove that alternating is the only way to get a -1?
$endgroup$
– Rohit Pandey
Jan 18 at 16:52
2
$begingroup$
Consider the eigenvector for $-1$. Split into positive entries and negative entries, then look at the sums for each part. Any edges within the same part work against us so it's not an eigenvector.
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Jan 18 at 20:18
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Too long for a comment.
The only thing that can derail my argument in the blog is if the matrices have an eigen value, -1
Then eigenvalue $−1$ of the matrix $M$ does not cause big problems for the investigation, because to it correspond an eigenvalue $1$ of the matrix $M^2$, and we can consider the convergence of odd and even powers separately. This is a direction in which I 'm going to continue my answer to the linked question.
The same approach is applicable for eigenvalues $xi$ which are roots of unity of a small order $m$. Moreover, if all entries of $ntimes n$ matrix $M$ are rational, then order $[Bbb Q(xi):Bbb Q]$ of the extension $Bbb Q(xi)$ over $Bbb Q$ is at most $varphi(m)$, where $varphi$ is the Euler function (see, for instance, [L, Ch. VIII, $S$3, Theorem 6]). This allows us bound $m$ in terms of $n$ as follows.
Let $m=p_1^{m_1}dots p_k^{m_k}$ be a product of powers of distinct primes. Then, according to [M]
$$varphi(m)=mleft(1-frac 1{p_1}right)dotsleft(1-frac 1{p_k}right)ge frac{cm}{log_e log_e m}.$$
I guees that $c$ is a constant. Then more aysmpotically weak but more concrete lower bound for $varphi(m)$ follows from an observation that $klelog_2 m$ and $1-frac 1{p_i}ge 1-frac 1{i+1}$ for each $i$, so
$$varphi(m)ge mfrac 12frac 23cdotsfrac k{k+1}=frac m{k+1}ge frac{m}{log_2 m +1}.$$
References
[L] Serge Lang, Algebra, Addison-Wesley Publ., 1965 (Russian translation, M.:Mir, 1968).
[M] Mathematical encyclopedia, vol. 5, 1985 (in Russian).
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
Yes, there's a way to refute the claim - a counterexample.
The matrix $begin{bmatrix}0&0½½\ 0&0½½\ frac12½&0&0\ frac12½&0&0end{bmatrix}$ has $-1$ as an eigenvalue with eigenvector $begin{bmatrix}1\1\-1\-1end{bmatrix}$.
Eigenvalues of $-1$ are associated with bipartite graphs; if every step alternates between two subgraphs, there will be an eigenvector for $-1$ weighting everything in one of those subgraphs positive and everything in the other negative. Other roots of unity are associated with directed cycles of longer lengths; they're less likely to come up unless you specifically rig the system to get them, but they're possible.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I thought I had... I shouldn't post so much in the wee hours, should I?
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Jan 18 at 13:55
$begingroup$
Thanks, is there a proof that alternating between subgraphs causes the matrix to have - 1 as an eigenvalue?
$endgroup$
– Rohit Pandey
Jan 18 at 16:44
$begingroup$
Actually, that's easy to see.. But how do we prove that alternating is the only way to get a -1?
$endgroup$
– Rohit Pandey
Jan 18 at 16:52
2
$begingroup$
Consider the eigenvector for $-1$. Split into positive entries and negative entries, then look at the sums for each part. Any edges within the same part work against us so it's not an eigenvector.
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Jan 18 at 20:18
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Yes, there's a way to refute the claim - a counterexample.
The matrix $begin{bmatrix}0&0½½\ 0&0½½\ frac12½&0&0\ frac12½&0&0end{bmatrix}$ has $-1$ as an eigenvalue with eigenvector $begin{bmatrix}1\1\-1\-1end{bmatrix}$.
Eigenvalues of $-1$ are associated with bipartite graphs; if every step alternates between two subgraphs, there will be an eigenvector for $-1$ weighting everything in one of those subgraphs positive and everything in the other negative. Other roots of unity are associated with directed cycles of longer lengths; they're less likely to come up unless you specifically rig the system to get them, but they're possible.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I thought I had... I shouldn't post so much in the wee hours, should I?
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Jan 18 at 13:55
$begingroup$
Thanks, is there a proof that alternating between subgraphs causes the matrix to have - 1 as an eigenvalue?
$endgroup$
– Rohit Pandey
Jan 18 at 16:44
$begingroup$
Actually, that's easy to see.. But how do we prove that alternating is the only way to get a -1?
$endgroup$
– Rohit Pandey
Jan 18 at 16:52
2
$begingroup$
Consider the eigenvector for $-1$. Split into positive entries and negative entries, then look at the sums for each part. Any edges within the same part work against us so it's not an eigenvector.
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Jan 18 at 20:18
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Yes, there's a way to refute the claim - a counterexample.
The matrix $begin{bmatrix}0&0½½\ 0&0½½\ frac12½&0&0\ frac12½&0&0end{bmatrix}$ has $-1$ as an eigenvalue with eigenvector $begin{bmatrix}1\1\-1\-1end{bmatrix}$.
Eigenvalues of $-1$ are associated with bipartite graphs; if every step alternates between two subgraphs, there will be an eigenvector for $-1$ weighting everything in one of those subgraphs positive and everything in the other negative. Other roots of unity are associated with directed cycles of longer lengths; they're less likely to come up unless you specifically rig the system to get them, but they're possible.
$endgroup$
Yes, there's a way to refute the claim - a counterexample.
The matrix $begin{bmatrix}0&0½½\ 0&0½½\ frac12½&0&0\ frac12½&0&0end{bmatrix}$ has $-1$ as an eigenvalue with eigenvector $begin{bmatrix}1\1\-1\-1end{bmatrix}$.
Eigenvalues of $-1$ are associated with bipartite graphs; if every step alternates between two subgraphs, there will be an eigenvector for $-1$ weighting everything in one of those subgraphs positive and everything in the other negative. Other roots of unity are associated with directed cycles of longer lengths; they're less likely to come up unless you specifically rig the system to get them, but they're possible.
edited Jan 18 at 13:54
answered Jan 18 at 9:04
jmerryjmerry
10.8k1225
10.8k1225
$begingroup$
I thought I had... I shouldn't post so much in the wee hours, should I?
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Jan 18 at 13:55
$begingroup$
Thanks, is there a proof that alternating between subgraphs causes the matrix to have - 1 as an eigenvalue?
$endgroup$
– Rohit Pandey
Jan 18 at 16:44
$begingroup$
Actually, that's easy to see.. But how do we prove that alternating is the only way to get a -1?
$endgroup$
– Rohit Pandey
Jan 18 at 16:52
2
$begingroup$
Consider the eigenvector for $-1$. Split into positive entries and negative entries, then look at the sums for each part. Any edges within the same part work against us so it's not an eigenvector.
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Jan 18 at 20:18
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I thought I had... I shouldn't post so much in the wee hours, should I?
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Jan 18 at 13:55
$begingroup$
Thanks, is there a proof that alternating between subgraphs causes the matrix to have - 1 as an eigenvalue?
$endgroup$
– Rohit Pandey
Jan 18 at 16:44
$begingroup$
Actually, that's easy to see.. But how do we prove that alternating is the only way to get a -1?
$endgroup$
– Rohit Pandey
Jan 18 at 16:52
2
$begingroup$
Consider the eigenvector for $-1$. Split into positive entries and negative entries, then look at the sums for each part. Any edges within the same part work against us so it's not an eigenvector.
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Jan 18 at 20:18
$begingroup$
I thought I had... I shouldn't post so much in the wee hours, should I?
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Jan 18 at 13:55
$begingroup$
I thought I had... I shouldn't post so much in the wee hours, should I?
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Jan 18 at 13:55
$begingroup$
Thanks, is there a proof that alternating between subgraphs causes the matrix to have - 1 as an eigenvalue?
$endgroup$
– Rohit Pandey
Jan 18 at 16:44
$begingroup$
Thanks, is there a proof that alternating between subgraphs causes the matrix to have - 1 as an eigenvalue?
$endgroup$
– Rohit Pandey
Jan 18 at 16:44
$begingroup$
Actually, that's easy to see.. But how do we prove that alternating is the only way to get a -1?
$endgroup$
– Rohit Pandey
Jan 18 at 16:52
$begingroup$
Actually, that's easy to see.. But how do we prove that alternating is the only way to get a -1?
$endgroup$
– Rohit Pandey
Jan 18 at 16:52
2
2
$begingroup$
Consider the eigenvector for $-1$. Split into positive entries and negative entries, then look at the sums for each part. Any edges within the same part work against us so it's not an eigenvector.
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Jan 18 at 20:18
$begingroup$
Consider the eigenvector for $-1$. Split into positive entries and negative entries, then look at the sums for each part. Any edges within the same part work against us so it's not an eigenvector.
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Jan 18 at 20:18
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Too long for a comment.
The only thing that can derail my argument in the blog is if the matrices have an eigen value, -1
Then eigenvalue $−1$ of the matrix $M$ does not cause big problems for the investigation, because to it correspond an eigenvalue $1$ of the matrix $M^2$, and we can consider the convergence of odd and even powers separately. This is a direction in which I 'm going to continue my answer to the linked question.
The same approach is applicable for eigenvalues $xi$ which are roots of unity of a small order $m$. Moreover, if all entries of $ntimes n$ matrix $M$ are rational, then order $[Bbb Q(xi):Bbb Q]$ of the extension $Bbb Q(xi)$ over $Bbb Q$ is at most $varphi(m)$, where $varphi$ is the Euler function (see, for instance, [L, Ch. VIII, $S$3, Theorem 6]). This allows us bound $m$ in terms of $n$ as follows.
Let $m=p_1^{m_1}dots p_k^{m_k}$ be a product of powers of distinct primes. Then, according to [M]
$$varphi(m)=mleft(1-frac 1{p_1}right)dotsleft(1-frac 1{p_k}right)ge frac{cm}{log_e log_e m}.$$
I guees that $c$ is a constant. Then more aysmpotically weak but more concrete lower bound for $varphi(m)$ follows from an observation that $klelog_2 m$ and $1-frac 1{p_i}ge 1-frac 1{i+1}$ for each $i$, so
$$varphi(m)ge mfrac 12frac 23cdotsfrac k{k+1}=frac m{k+1}ge frac{m}{log_2 m +1}.$$
References
[L] Serge Lang, Algebra, Addison-Wesley Publ., 1965 (Russian translation, M.:Mir, 1968).
[M] Mathematical encyclopedia, vol. 5, 1985 (in Russian).
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Too long for a comment.
The only thing that can derail my argument in the blog is if the matrices have an eigen value, -1
Then eigenvalue $−1$ of the matrix $M$ does not cause big problems for the investigation, because to it correspond an eigenvalue $1$ of the matrix $M^2$, and we can consider the convergence of odd and even powers separately. This is a direction in which I 'm going to continue my answer to the linked question.
The same approach is applicable for eigenvalues $xi$ which are roots of unity of a small order $m$. Moreover, if all entries of $ntimes n$ matrix $M$ are rational, then order $[Bbb Q(xi):Bbb Q]$ of the extension $Bbb Q(xi)$ over $Bbb Q$ is at most $varphi(m)$, where $varphi$ is the Euler function (see, for instance, [L, Ch. VIII, $S$3, Theorem 6]). This allows us bound $m$ in terms of $n$ as follows.
Let $m=p_1^{m_1}dots p_k^{m_k}$ be a product of powers of distinct primes. Then, according to [M]
$$varphi(m)=mleft(1-frac 1{p_1}right)dotsleft(1-frac 1{p_k}right)ge frac{cm}{log_e log_e m}.$$
I guees that $c$ is a constant. Then more aysmpotically weak but more concrete lower bound for $varphi(m)$ follows from an observation that $klelog_2 m$ and $1-frac 1{p_i}ge 1-frac 1{i+1}$ for each $i$, so
$$varphi(m)ge mfrac 12frac 23cdotsfrac k{k+1}=frac m{k+1}ge frac{m}{log_2 m +1}.$$
References
[L] Serge Lang, Algebra, Addison-Wesley Publ., 1965 (Russian translation, M.:Mir, 1968).
[M] Mathematical encyclopedia, vol. 5, 1985 (in Russian).
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Too long for a comment.
The only thing that can derail my argument in the blog is if the matrices have an eigen value, -1
Then eigenvalue $−1$ of the matrix $M$ does not cause big problems for the investigation, because to it correspond an eigenvalue $1$ of the matrix $M^2$, and we can consider the convergence of odd and even powers separately. This is a direction in which I 'm going to continue my answer to the linked question.
The same approach is applicable for eigenvalues $xi$ which are roots of unity of a small order $m$. Moreover, if all entries of $ntimes n$ matrix $M$ are rational, then order $[Bbb Q(xi):Bbb Q]$ of the extension $Bbb Q(xi)$ over $Bbb Q$ is at most $varphi(m)$, where $varphi$ is the Euler function (see, for instance, [L, Ch. VIII, $S$3, Theorem 6]). This allows us bound $m$ in terms of $n$ as follows.
Let $m=p_1^{m_1}dots p_k^{m_k}$ be a product of powers of distinct primes. Then, according to [M]
$$varphi(m)=mleft(1-frac 1{p_1}right)dotsleft(1-frac 1{p_k}right)ge frac{cm}{log_e log_e m}.$$
I guees that $c$ is a constant. Then more aysmpotically weak but more concrete lower bound for $varphi(m)$ follows from an observation that $klelog_2 m$ and $1-frac 1{p_i}ge 1-frac 1{i+1}$ for each $i$, so
$$varphi(m)ge mfrac 12frac 23cdotsfrac k{k+1}=frac m{k+1}ge frac{m}{log_2 m +1}.$$
References
[L] Serge Lang, Algebra, Addison-Wesley Publ., 1965 (Russian translation, M.:Mir, 1968).
[M] Mathematical encyclopedia, vol. 5, 1985 (in Russian).
$endgroup$
Too long for a comment.
The only thing that can derail my argument in the blog is if the matrices have an eigen value, -1
Then eigenvalue $−1$ of the matrix $M$ does not cause big problems for the investigation, because to it correspond an eigenvalue $1$ of the matrix $M^2$, and we can consider the convergence of odd and even powers separately. This is a direction in which I 'm going to continue my answer to the linked question.
The same approach is applicable for eigenvalues $xi$ which are roots of unity of a small order $m$. Moreover, if all entries of $ntimes n$ matrix $M$ are rational, then order $[Bbb Q(xi):Bbb Q]$ of the extension $Bbb Q(xi)$ over $Bbb Q$ is at most $varphi(m)$, where $varphi$ is the Euler function (see, for instance, [L, Ch. VIII, $S$3, Theorem 6]). This allows us bound $m$ in terms of $n$ as follows.
Let $m=p_1^{m_1}dots p_k^{m_k}$ be a product of powers of distinct primes. Then, according to [M]
$$varphi(m)=mleft(1-frac 1{p_1}right)dotsleft(1-frac 1{p_k}right)ge frac{cm}{log_e log_e m}.$$
I guees that $c$ is a constant. Then more aysmpotically weak but more concrete lower bound for $varphi(m)$ follows from an observation that $klelog_2 m$ and $1-frac 1{p_i}ge 1-frac 1{i+1}$ for each $i$, so
$$varphi(m)ge mfrac 12frac 23cdotsfrac k{k+1}=frac m{k+1}ge frac{m}{log_2 m +1}.$$
References
[L] Serge Lang, Algebra, Addison-Wesley Publ., 1965 (Russian translation, M.:Mir, 1968).
[M] Mathematical encyclopedia, vol. 5, 1985 (in Russian).
answered Jan 19 at 9:40
Alex RavskyAlex Ravsky
42.2k32383
42.2k32383
add a comment |
add a comment |
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