The relation between $L^p$-norm and distribution function












1












$begingroup$


In my textbook, there is a theorem



Let $(X,mu)$ be a measurable theorem.




For $f$ in $L^p(X,mu )$, $0 < p < infty$, we have $$ ||f||_{L^p}^p = p intlimits_{0}^{infty} alpha^{p-1} d_f(alpha ) mathrm{d}alpha . $$




Where $||.||_{L^p}^p$ is the ordinary $L^p$ norm and $d_f$ is the ditribution function.



The first step, they did
$$ p intlimits_{0}^{infty} alpha^{p-1} d_f(alpha ) mathrm{d}alpha = p intlimits_{0}^{infty} alpha^{p-1} int_{X} chi_{[|f| > alpha]} mathrm{d} mu (x) mathrm{d} alpha$$
which is normal, as we just apply the definition of a distribution function.



But in the next step, they said they applied thẻ Fubini's theorem and obtain the following
$$int_X intlimits_0^{|f(x)|} p alpha ^{p-1} mathrm{d} alpha mathrm{d} mu (x) $$
which doesn't make sense to me.



As far as I know, the Fubini's theorem states that if $f$ is integrable on the product measure space then the order of integrating can be changed.



But how did it change the interval $[0;+infty )$ into $[0; |f(x)|]$ and not $[|f(x)|, +infty )$?



Please give me a clarification. Thank you.










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$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Notice that you have $ chi_{|f(x)| >alpha} $, which means when you switch the order of the integration that function gives you that $ alpha < |f(x)| $. I won't recommend switching the order as you would do it in a calculus course.
    $endgroup$
    – HarshCurious
    Jan 9 at 21:16
















1












$begingroup$


In my textbook, there is a theorem



Let $(X,mu)$ be a measurable theorem.




For $f$ in $L^p(X,mu )$, $0 < p < infty$, we have $$ ||f||_{L^p}^p = p intlimits_{0}^{infty} alpha^{p-1} d_f(alpha ) mathrm{d}alpha . $$




Where $||.||_{L^p}^p$ is the ordinary $L^p$ norm and $d_f$ is the ditribution function.



The first step, they did
$$ p intlimits_{0}^{infty} alpha^{p-1} d_f(alpha ) mathrm{d}alpha = p intlimits_{0}^{infty} alpha^{p-1} int_{X} chi_{[|f| > alpha]} mathrm{d} mu (x) mathrm{d} alpha$$
which is normal, as we just apply the definition of a distribution function.



But in the next step, they said they applied thẻ Fubini's theorem and obtain the following
$$int_X intlimits_0^{|f(x)|} p alpha ^{p-1} mathrm{d} alpha mathrm{d} mu (x) $$
which doesn't make sense to me.



As far as I know, the Fubini's theorem states that if $f$ is integrable on the product measure space then the order of integrating can be changed.



But how did it change the interval $[0;+infty )$ into $[0; |f(x)|]$ and not $[|f(x)|, +infty )$?



Please give me a clarification. Thank you.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Notice that you have $ chi_{|f(x)| >alpha} $, which means when you switch the order of the integration that function gives you that $ alpha < |f(x)| $. I won't recommend switching the order as you would do it in a calculus course.
    $endgroup$
    – HarshCurious
    Jan 9 at 21:16














1












1








1





$begingroup$


In my textbook, there is a theorem



Let $(X,mu)$ be a measurable theorem.




For $f$ in $L^p(X,mu )$, $0 < p < infty$, we have $$ ||f||_{L^p}^p = p intlimits_{0}^{infty} alpha^{p-1} d_f(alpha ) mathrm{d}alpha . $$




Where $||.||_{L^p}^p$ is the ordinary $L^p$ norm and $d_f$ is the ditribution function.



The first step, they did
$$ p intlimits_{0}^{infty} alpha^{p-1} d_f(alpha ) mathrm{d}alpha = p intlimits_{0}^{infty} alpha^{p-1} int_{X} chi_{[|f| > alpha]} mathrm{d} mu (x) mathrm{d} alpha$$
which is normal, as we just apply the definition of a distribution function.



But in the next step, they said they applied thẻ Fubini's theorem and obtain the following
$$int_X intlimits_0^{|f(x)|} p alpha ^{p-1} mathrm{d} alpha mathrm{d} mu (x) $$
which doesn't make sense to me.



As far as I know, the Fubini's theorem states that if $f$ is integrable on the product measure space then the order of integrating can be changed.



But how did it change the interval $[0;+infty )$ into $[0; |f(x)|]$ and not $[|f(x)|, +infty )$?



Please give me a clarification. Thank you.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




In my textbook, there is a theorem



Let $(X,mu)$ be a measurable theorem.




For $f$ in $L^p(X,mu )$, $0 < p < infty$, we have $$ ||f||_{L^p}^p = p intlimits_{0}^{infty} alpha^{p-1} d_f(alpha ) mathrm{d}alpha . $$




Where $||.||_{L^p}^p$ is the ordinary $L^p$ norm and $d_f$ is the ditribution function.



The first step, they did
$$ p intlimits_{0}^{infty} alpha^{p-1} d_f(alpha ) mathrm{d}alpha = p intlimits_{0}^{infty} alpha^{p-1} int_{X} chi_{[|f| > alpha]} mathrm{d} mu (x) mathrm{d} alpha$$
which is normal, as we just apply the definition of a distribution function.



But in the next step, they said they applied thẻ Fubini's theorem and obtain the following
$$int_X intlimits_0^{|f(x)|} p alpha ^{p-1} mathrm{d} alpha mathrm{d} mu (x) $$
which doesn't make sense to me.



As far as I know, the Fubini's theorem states that if $f$ is integrable on the product measure space then the order of integrating can be changed.



But how did it change the interval $[0;+infty )$ into $[0; |f(x)|]$ and not $[|f(x)|, +infty )$?



Please give me a clarification. Thank you.







measure-theory lebesgue-integral






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asked Jan 9 at 21:06









ElementXElementX

404111




404111








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Notice that you have $ chi_{|f(x)| >alpha} $, which means when you switch the order of the integration that function gives you that $ alpha < |f(x)| $. I won't recommend switching the order as you would do it in a calculus course.
    $endgroup$
    – HarshCurious
    Jan 9 at 21:16














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Notice that you have $ chi_{|f(x)| >alpha} $, which means when you switch the order of the integration that function gives you that $ alpha < |f(x)| $. I won't recommend switching the order as you would do it in a calculus course.
    $endgroup$
    – HarshCurious
    Jan 9 at 21:16








2




2




$begingroup$
Notice that you have $ chi_{|f(x)| >alpha} $, which means when you switch the order of the integration that function gives you that $ alpha < |f(x)| $. I won't recommend switching the order as you would do it in a calculus course.
$endgroup$
– HarshCurious
Jan 9 at 21:16




$begingroup$
Notice that you have $ chi_{|f(x)| >alpha} $, which means when you switch the order of the integration that function gives you that $ alpha < |f(x)| $. I won't recommend switching the order as you would do it in a calculus course.
$endgroup$
– HarshCurious
Jan 9 at 21:16










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