Assuming that $f''(a)$ exists, show that: $f''(a)=lim_{hto 0}frac{f(a+h)-2f(a)+f(a-h)}{h^2}$ [duplicate]












2












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  • Second derivative “formula derivation”

    3 answers





Assuming that $f''(a)$ exists, show that:
$$f''(a)=lim_{hto 0}frac{f(a+h)-2f(a)+f(a-h)}{h^2}$$




I got the first derivative by using the limit rule $(f(a+h)-f(a))/h$. But when taking the second derivative, I thought of doing the same thing on $f(a)$ of the equation, but I couldn't reach this answer.










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marked as duplicate by Lord Shark the Unknown, Martin Argerami, Kemono Chen, Jyrki Lahtonen, mrtaurho Jan 23 at 6:43


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do you have Taylor's formula in your toolkit?
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Jan 23 at 0:13










  • $begingroup$
    No, I don't have.
    $endgroup$
    – Hami the Penguin
    Jan 23 at 0:15






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Then, apply it twice.
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Jan 23 at 0:20






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Bernard L'Hopital rule assumes that $f$ is differentiable in some neighbourhood of $a$, and we also need continuity of the second derivative
    $endgroup$
    – Jakobian
    Jan 23 at 0:22








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I know you didn't mean it. I am myself from time to time a victim of one of these brave anonymous downvoters.I quite agree with you for a correct way of downvoting. Personally, when I see a mistake in an answer, I just make a comment for the author to point it out, so he/she may modify the answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Jan 23 at 23:05
















2












$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • Second derivative “formula derivation”

    3 answers





Assuming that $f''(a)$ exists, show that:
$$f''(a)=lim_{hto 0}frac{f(a+h)-2f(a)+f(a-h)}{h^2}$$




I got the first derivative by using the limit rule $(f(a+h)-f(a))/h$. But when taking the second derivative, I thought of doing the same thing on $f(a)$ of the equation, but I couldn't reach this answer.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



marked as duplicate by Lord Shark the Unknown, Martin Argerami, Kemono Chen, Jyrki Lahtonen, mrtaurho Jan 23 at 6:43


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do you have Taylor's formula in your toolkit?
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Jan 23 at 0:13










  • $begingroup$
    No, I don't have.
    $endgroup$
    – Hami the Penguin
    Jan 23 at 0:15






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Then, apply it twice.
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Jan 23 at 0:20






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Bernard L'Hopital rule assumes that $f$ is differentiable in some neighbourhood of $a$, and we also need continuity of the second derivative
    $endgroup$
    – Jakobian
    Jan 23 at 0:22








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I know you didn't mean it. I am myself from time to time a victim of one of these brave anonymous downvoters.I quite agree with you for a correct way of downvoting. Personally, when I see a mistake in an answer, I just make a comment for the author to point it out, so he/she may modify the answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Jan 23 at 23:05














2












2








2


2



$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • Second derivative “formula derivation”

    3 answers





Assuming that $f''(a)$ exists, show that:
$$f''(a)=lim_{hto 0}frac{f(a+h)-2f(a)+f(a-h)}{h^2}$$




I got the first derivative by using the limit rule $(f(a+h)-f(a))/h$. But when taking the second derivative, I thought of doing the same thing on $f(a)$ of the equation, but I couldn't reach this answer.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





This question already has an answer here:




  • Second derivative “formula derivation”

    3 answers





Assuming that $f''(a)$ exists, show that:
$$f''(a)=lim_{hto 0}frac{f(a+h)-2f(a)+f(a-h)}{h^2}$$




I got the first derivative by using the limit rule $(f(a+h)-f(a))/h$. But when taking the second derivative, I thought of doing the same thing on $f(a)$ of the equation, but I couldn't reach this answer.





This question already has an answer here:




  • Second derivative “formula derivation”

    3 answers








calculus limits






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edited Jan 23 at 0:14









Blue

49k870156




49k870156










asked Jan 23 at 0:08









Hami the PenguinHami the Penguin

474




474




marked as duplicate by Lord Shark the Unknown, Martin Argerami, Kemono Chen, Jyrki Lahtonen, mrtaurho Jan 23 at 6:43


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.









marked as duplicate by Lord Shark the Unknown, Martin Argerami, Kemono Chen, Jyrki Lahtonen, mrtaurho Jan 23 at 6:43


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.










  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do you have Taylor's formula in your toolkit?
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Jan 23 at 0:13










  • $begingroup$
    No, I don't have.
    $endgroup$
    – Hami the Penguin
    Jan 23 at 0:15






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Then, apply it twice.
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Jan 23 at 0:20






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Bernard L'Hopital rule assumes that $f$ is differentiable in some neighbourhood of $a$, and we also need continuity of the second derivative
    $endgroup$
    – Jakobian
    Jan 23 at 0:22








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I know you didn't mean it. I am myself from time to time a victim of one of these brave anonymous downvoters.I quite agree with you for a correct way of downvoting. Personally, when I see a mistake in an answer, I just make a comment for the author to point it out, so he/she may modify the answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Jan 23 at 23:05














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do you have Taylor's formula in your toolkit?
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Jan 23 at 0:13










  • $begingroup$
    No, I don't have.
    $endgroup$
    – Hami the Penguin
    Jan 23 at 0:15






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Then, apply it twice.
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Jan 23 at 0:20






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Bernard L'Hopital rule assumes that $f$ is differentiable in some neighbourhood of $a$, and we also need continuity of the second derivative
    $endgroup$
    – Jakobian
    Jan 23 at 0:22








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I know you didn't mean it. I am myself from time to time a victim of one of these brave anonymous downvoters.I quite agree with you for a correct way of downvoting. Personally, when I see a mistake in an answer, I just make a comment for the author to point it out, so he/she may modify the answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Jan 23 at 23:05








1




1




$begingroup$
Do you have Taylor's formula in your toolkit?
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Jan 23 at 0:13




$begingroup$
Do you have Taylor's formula in your toolkit?
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Jan 23 at 0:13












$begingroup$
No, I don't have.
$endgroup$
– Hami the Penguin
Jan 23 at 0:15




$begingroup$
No, I don't have.
$endgroup$
– Hami the Penguin
Jan 23 at 0:15




1




1




$begingroup$
Then, apply it twice.
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Jan 23 at 0:20




$begingroup$
Then, apply it twice.
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Jan 23 at 0:20




1




1




$begingroup$
@Bernard L'Hopital rule assumes that $f$ is differentiable in some neighbourhood of $a$, and we also need continuity of the second derivative
$endgroup$
– Jakobian
Jan 23 at 0:22






$begingroup$
@Bernard L'Hopital rule assumes that $f$ is differentiable in some neighbourhood of $a$, and we also need continuity of the second derivative
$endgroup$
– Jakobian
Jan 23 at 0:22






1




1




$begingroup$
I know you didn't mean it. I am myself from time to time a victim of one of these brave anonymous downvoters.I quite agree with you for a correct way of downvoting. Personally, when I see a mistake in an answer, I just make a comment for the author to point it out, so he/she may modify the answer.
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Jan 23 at 23:05




$begingroup$
I know you didn't mean it. I am myself from time to time a victim of one of these brave anonymous downvoters.I quite agree with you for a correct way of downvoting. Personally, when I see a mistake in an answer, I just make a comment for the author to point it out, so he/she may modify the answer.
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Jan 23 at 23:05










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

To be precise, let me re-phrase the question: Let $I$ be an open
interval, $ain I$, and $f:Irightarrowmathbb{R}$. Suppose that
$f''(a)$ exists, then
$$
f''(a)=lim_{hrightarrow0}frac{f(a+h)+f(a-h)-2f(a)}{h^{2}}.
$$



Proof: That $f''(a)$ exists implies that there exists $delta>0$ such
that $f'$ exists on $(a-delta,a+delta)$ and $f'$ is continuous
at $a$. Define functions $phi:(0,delta)rightarrowmathbb{R}$
and $psi:(0,delta)rightarrowmathbb{R}$ by $phi(t)=f(a+t)+f(a-t)-2f(a)$
and $psi(t)=t^{2}$. Clearly $phi$ and $psi$ are differentiable.
Note that
$$
lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{phi(t)}{psi(t)}
$$

is a $0/0$-indeterminate form. By L'Hospital rule, we have
$$
lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{phi(t)}{psi(t)}=lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{phi'(t)}{psi'(t)},
$$

provided that the limit on the RHS exists. But
begin{eqnarray*}
lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{phi'(t)}{psi'(t)} & = & lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{f'(a+t)-f'(a-t)}{2t}\
& = & lim_{trightarrow0+}left[frac{1}{2}frac{f'(a+t)-f'(a)}{t}+frac{1}{2}frac{f'(a)-f'(a-t)}{t}right]\
& = & frac{1}{2}f''(a)+frac{1}{2}f''(a)\
& = & f''(a).
end{eqnarray*}

Therefore, we conclude that
$$
f''(a)=lim_{hrightarrow0+}frac{f(a+h)+f(a-h)-2f(a)}{h^{2}}.
$$

The case that $hrightarrow0-$ can be proved similarly.






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    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes








    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    1












    $begingroup$

    To be precise, let me re-phrase the question: Let $I$ be an open
    interval, $ain I$, and $f:Irightarrowmathbb{R}$. Suppose that
    $f''(a)$ exists, then
    $$
    f''(a)=lim_{hrightarrow0}frac{f(a+h)+f(a-h)-2f(a)}{h^{2}}.
    $$



    Proof: That $f''(a)$ exists implies that there exists $delta>0$ such
    that $f'$ exists on $(a-delta,a+delta)$ and $f'$ is continuous
    at $a$. Define functions $phi:(0,delta)rightarrowmathbb{R}$
    and $psi:(0,delta)rightarrowmathbb{R}$ by $phi(t)=f(a+t)+f(a-t)-2f(a)$
    and $psi(t)=t^{2}$. Clearly $phi$ and $psi$ are differentiable.
    Note that
    $$
    lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{phi(t)}{psi(t)}
    $$

    is a $0/0$-indeterminate form. By L'Hospital rule, we have
    $$
    lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{phi(t)}{psi(t)}=lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{phi'(t)}{psi'(t)},
    $$

    provided that the limit on the RHS exists. But
    begin{eqnarray*}
    lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{phi'(t)}{psi'(t)} & = & lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{f'(a+t)-f'(a-t)}{2t}\
    & = & lim_{trightarrow0+}left[frac{1}{2}frac{f'(a+t)-f'(a)}{t}+frac{1}{2}frac{f'(a)-f'(a-t)}{t}right]\
    & = & frac{1}{2}f''(a)+frac{1}{2}f''(a)\
    & = & f''(a).
    end{eqnarray*}

    Therefore, we conclude that
    $$
    f''(a)=lim_{hrightarrow0+}frac{f(a+h)+f(a-h)-2f(a)}{h^{2}}.
    $$

    The case that $hrightarrow0-$ can be proved similarly.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      To be precise, let me re-phrase the question: Let $I$ be an open
      interval, $ain I$, and $f:Irightarrowmathbb{R}$. Suppose that
      $f''(a)$ exists, then
      $$
      f''(a)=lim_{hrightarrow0}frac{f(a+h)+f(a-h)-2f(a)}{h^{2}}.
      $$



      Proof: That $f''(a)$ exists implies that there exists $delta>0$ such
      that $f'$ exists on $(a-delta,a+delta)$ and $f'$ is continuous
      at $a$. Define functions $phi:(0,delta)rightarrowmathbb{R}$
      and $psi:(0,delta)rightarrowmathbb{R}$ by $phi(t)=f(a+t)+f(a-t)-2f(a)$
      and $psi(t)=t^{2}$. Clearly $phi$ and $psi$ are differentiable.
      Note that
      $$
      lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{phi(t)}{psi(t)}
      $$

      is a $0/0$-indeterminate form. By L'Hospital rule, we have
      $$
      lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{phi(t)}{psi(t)}=lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{phi'(t)}{psi'(t)},
      $$

      provided that the limit on the RHS exists. But
      begin{eqnarray*}
      lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{phi'(t)}{psi'(t)} & = & lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{f'(a+t)-f'(a-t)}{2t}\
      & = & lim_{trightarrow0+}left[frac{1}{2}frac{f'(a+t)-f'(a)}{t}+frac{1}{2}frac{f'(a)-f'(a-t)}{t}right]\
      & = & frac{1}{2}f''(a)+frac{1}{2}f''(a)\
      & = & f''(a).
      end{eqnarray*}

      Therefore, we conclude that
      $$
      f''(a)=lim_{hrightarrow0+}frac{f(a+h)+f(a-h)-2f(a)}{h^{2}}.
      $$

      The case that $hrightarrow0-$ can be proved similarly.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        To be precise, let me re-phrase the question: Let $I$ be an open
        interval, $ain I$, and $f:Irightarrowmathbb{R}$. Suppose that
        $f''(a)$ exists, then
        $$
        f''(a)=lim_{hrightarrow0}frac{f(a+h)+f(a-h)-2f(a)}{h^{2}}.
        $$



        Proof: That $f''(a)$ exists implies that there exists $delta>0$ such
        that $f'$ exists on $(a-delta,a+delta)$ and $f'$ is continuous
        at $a$. Define functions $phi:(0,delta)rightarrowmathbb{R}$
        and $psi:(0,delta)rightarrowmathbb{R}$ by $phi(t)=f(a+t)+f(a-t)-2f(a)$
        and $psi(t)=t^{2}$. Clearly $phi$ and $psi$ are differentiable.
        Note that
        $$
        lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{phi(t)}{psi(t)}
        $$

        is a $0/0$-indeterminate form. By L'Hospital rule, we have
        $$
        lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{phi(t)}{psi(t)}=lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{phi'(t)}{psi'(t)},
        $$

        provided that the limit on the RHS exists. But
        begin{eqnarray*}
        lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{phi'(t)}{psi'(t)} & = & lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{f'(a+t)-f'(a-t)}{2t}\
        & = & lim_{trightarrow0+}left[frac{1}{2}frac{f'(a+t)-f'(a)}{t}+frac{1}{2}frac{f'(a)-f'(a-t)}{t}right]\
        & = & frac{1}{2}f''(a)+frac{1}{2}f''(a)\
        & = & f''(a).
        end{eqnarray*}

        Therefore, we conclude that
        $$
        f''(a)=lim_{hrightarrow0+}frac{f(a+h)+f(a-h)-2f(a)}{h^{2}}.
        $$

        The case that $hrightarrow0-$ can be proved similarly.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        To be precise, let me re-phrase the question: Let $I$ be an open
        interval, $ain I$, and $f:Irightarrowmathbb{R}$. Suppose that
        $f''(a)$ exists, then
        $$
        f''(a)=lim_{hrightarrow0}frac{f(a+h)+f(a-h)-2f(a)}{h^{2}}.
        $$



        Proof: That $f''(a)$ exists implies that there exists $delta>0$ such
        that $f'$ exists on $(a-delta,a+delta)$ and $f'$ is continuous
        at $a$. Define functions $phi:(0,delta)rightarrowmathbb{R}$
        and $psi:(0,delta)rightarrowmathbb{R}$ by $phi(t)=f(a+t)+f(a-t)-2f(a)$
        and $psi(t)=t^{2}$. Clearly $phi$ and $psi$ are differentiable.
        Note that
        $$
        lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{phi(t)}{psi(t)}
        $$

        is a $0/0$-indeterminate form. By L'Hospital rule, we have
        $$
        lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{phi(t)}{psi(t)}=lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{phi'(t)}{psi'(t)},
        $$

        provided that the limit on the RHS exists. But
        begin{eqnarray*}
        lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{phi'(t)}{psi'(t)} & = & lim_{trightarrow0+}frac{f'(a+t)-f'(a-t)}{2t}\
        & = & lim_{trightarrow0+}left[frac{1}{2}frac{f'(a+t)-f'(a)}{t}+frac{1}{2}frac{f'(a)-f'(a-t)}{t}right]\
        & = & frac{1}{2}f''(a)+frac{1}{2}f''(a)\
        & = & f''(a).
        end{eqnarray*}

        Therefore, we conclude that
        $$
        f''(a)=lim_{hrightarrow0+}frac{f(a+h)+f(a-h)-2f(a)}{h^{2}}.
        $$

        The case that $hrightarrow0-$ can be proved similarly.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 23 at 0:45









        Danny Pak-Keung ChanDanny Pak-Keung Chan

        2,46638




        2,46638















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