(Hint Needed) Real-Analysis Exam
$begingroup$
So I'm trying to study for a qualifying exam and need a hint on the following problem. If someone knows of some useful lemmas and techniques, I would like to hear it!
Let $(X,mathcal{A},mu)$ be a $sigma$-finite measure space, and let $mathcal{A}_0$ be a sub-$sigma$-algebra of $mathcal{A}$ so that $(X,mathcal{A}_0,mu)$ is $sigma$-finite. Given a nonnegative $mathcal{A}$-measurable function $f$ on $X$, show that there is a nonnegative $mathcal{A}_0$-measurable function $f_0$ on $X$, such that
$$int_Xfg,dmu=int_Xf_0g,dmu $$
for every nonnegative $mathcal{A}_0$-measurable function $g$. In what sense is $f_0$ unique?
real-analysis analysis measure-theory lebesgue-measure
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
So I'm trying to study for a qualifying exam and need a hint on the following problem. If someone knows of some useful lemmas and techniques, I would like to hear it!
Let $(X,mathcal{A},mu)$ be a $sigma$-finite measure space, and let $mathcal{A}_0$ be a sub-$sigma$-algebra of $mathcal{A}$ so that $(X,mathcal{A}_0,mu)$ is $sigma$-finite. Given a nonnegative $mathcal{A}$-measurable function $f$ on $X$, show that there is a nonnegative $mathcal{A}_0$-measurable function $f_0$ on $X$, such that
$$int_Xfg,dmu=int_Xf_0g,dmu $$
for every nonnegative $mathcal{A}_0$-measurable function $g$. In what sense is $f_0$ unique?
real-analysis analysis measure-theory lebesgue-measure
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
So I'm trying to study for a qualifying exam and need a hint on the following problem. If someone knows of some useful lemmas and techniques, I would like to hear it!
Let $(X,mathcal{A},mu)$ be a $sigma$-finite measure space, and let $mathcal{A}_0$ be a sub-$sigma$-algebra of $mathcal{A}$ so that $(X,mathcal{A}_0,mu)$ is $sigma$-finite. Given a nonnegative $mathcal{A}$-measurable function $f$ on $X$, show that there is a nonnegative $mathcal{A}_0$-measurable function $f_0$ on $X$, such that
$$int_Xfg,dmu=int_Xf_0g,dmu $$
for every nonnegative $mathcal{A}_0$-measurable function $g$. In what sense is $f_0$ unique?
real-analysis analysis measure-theory lebesgue-measure
$endgroup$
So I'm trying to study for a qualifying exam and need a hint on the following problem. If someone knows of some useful lemmas and techniques, I would like to hear it!
Let $(X,mathcal{A},mu)$ be a $sigma$-finite measure space, and let $mathcal{A}_0$ be a sub-$sigma$-algebra of $mathcal{A}$ so that $(X,mathcal{A}_0,mu)$ is $sigma$-finite. Given a nonnegative $mathcal{A}$-measurable function $f$ on $X$, show that there is a nonnegative $mathcal{A}_0$-measurable function $f_0$ on $X$, such that
$$int_Xfg,dmu=int_Xf_0g,dmu $$
for every nonnegative $mathcal{A}_0$-measurable function $g$. In what sense is $f_0$ unique?
real-analysis analysis measure-theory lebesgue-measure
real-analysis analysis measure-theory lebesgue-measure
edited Jan 23 at 4:48
Key Flex
8,38261233
8,38261233
asked Jan 23 at 4:09
DarelDarel
1249
1249
add a comment |
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
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oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Notice that the above problem is false if we do not require $(X,mathcal{A}_0,mu)$ to be $sigma$-finite. As a counter-example, take the usual Lebesgue measure on $mathbb{R}$, and $mathcal{A}_0={∅,mathbb{R}}$. Let $g = 1$ and $f =X_{[0,1]}$. Then LHS is $1$ while RHS is either $0$ and $infty ($contradiction $)$. Thus we will assume $(X, mathcal{A}_0, mu)$ is σ-finite in this proof.
We first construct $f_0$ that holds for $g$ to be simple functions, i.e. we want $f_0$ satisfies
$$int_Ef dmu=int_E f_0 dmu,mbox{ for any }Einmathcal{A}_0tag{1}$$
Consider the $sigma$-finite measure space $(X,mathcal{A}_0,mu)$. Let $v$ be a measure defined on this space by $$v(E)=int_Ef dmumbox{ for my }Ein mathcal{A}_0$$
It is clear that $v$ is a $sigma$-finite measure and $v<<mu$. Radon-Nikodym theorem allows us to
construct an $mathcal{A}_0$-measurable function $f_0=dfrac{dv}{dmu}ge0$.
In the case when $gge0$ is $mathcal{A}_0$-measurable, we can find an increasing sequence of $mathcal{A}_0$-simple functions $psi_n$ converges to $g$ pointwise. Then $fpsi _n$ and $f_0psi _n$ monotonically converges to $fg$ and $f_0g$ respectively. By previous case and the Monotone convergence theorem$$int_Xfg d mu=limint_Xfpsi _n dmu=limint_Xf_0psi _n dmu=int_Xf_0g dmu$$
Therefore, $f_0$ satisfies all the hypotheses. By Radon-Nikodym construction, $f_0$ is unique up to $muupharpoonright mathcal{A}_0$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
I will add the fact that $mathcal{A}_0$ is $sigma$-finite. So the key was with the Radon-Nikodym Theorem. I'll have to do the reading again, I don't think I remember how to use the Theorem too well.
$endgroup$
– Darel
Jan 23 at 4:45
1
$begingroup$
@Darel Yes, the main point is to notice that $mathcal{A}_0$ is $sigma$-finite and to use Radon-Nikodym Theorem.
$endgroup$
– Key Flex
Jan 23 at 4:48
$begingroup$
Just to make this question a little more useful to anyone else reading, do you have any suggested readings?
$endgroup$
– Darel
Jan 23 at 4:49
add a comment |
Your Answer
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
Notice that the above problem is false if we do not require $(X,mathcal{A}_0,mu)$ to be $sigma$-finite. As a counter-example, take the usual Lebesgue measure on $mathbb{R}$, and $mathcal{A}_0={∅,mathbb{R}}$. Let $g = 1$ and $f =X_{[0,1]}$. Then LHS is $1$ while RHS is either $0$ and $infty ($contradiction $)$. Thus we will assume $(X, mathcal{A}_0, mu)$ is σ-finite in this proof.
We first construct $f_0$ that holds for $g$ to be simple functions, i.e. we want $f_0$ satisfies
$$int_Ef dmu=int_E f_0 dmu,mbox{ for any }Einmathcal{A}_0tag{1}$$
Consider the $sigma$-finite measure space $(X,mathcal{A}_0,mu)$. Let $v$ be a measure defined on this space by $$v(E)=int_Ef dmumbox{ for my }Ein mathcal{A}_0$$
It is clear that $v$ is a $sigma$-finite measure and $v<<mu$. Radon-Nikodym theorem allows us to
construct an $mathcal{A}_0$-measurable function $f_0=dfrac{dv}{dmu}ge0$.
In the case when $gge0$ is $mathcal{A}_0$-measurable, we can find an increasing sequence of $mathcal{A}_0$-simple functions $psi_n$ converges to $g$ pointwise. Then $fpsi _n$ and $f_0psi _n$ monotonically converges to $fg$ and $f_0g$ respectively. By previous case and the Monotone convergence theorem$$int_Xfg d mu=limint_Xfpsi _n dmu=limint_Xf_0psi _n dmu=int_Xf_0g dmu$$
Therefore, $f_0$ satisfies all the hypotheses. By Radon-Nikodym construction, $f_0$ is unique up to $muupharpoonright mathcal{A}_0$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
I will add the fact that $mathcal{A}_0$ is $sigma$-finite. So the key was with the Radon-Nikodym Theorem. I'll have to do the reading again, I don't think I remember how to use the Theorem too well.
$endgroup$
– Darel
Jan 23 at 4:45
1
$begingroup$
@Darel Yes, the main point is to notice that $mathcal{A}_0$ is $sigma$-finite and to use Radon-Nikodym Theorem.
$endgroup$
– Key Flex
Jan 23 at 4:48
$begingroup$
Just to make this question a little more useful to anyone else reading, do you have any suggested readings?
$endgroup$
– Darel
Jan 23 at 4:49
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Notice that the above problem is false if we do not require $(X,mathcal{A}_0,mu)$ to be $sigma$-finite. As a counter-example, take the usual Lebesgue measure on $mathbb{R}$, and $mathcal{A}_0={∅,mathbb{R}}$. Let $g = 1$ and $f =X_{[0,1]}$. Then LHS is $1$ while RHS is either $0$ and $infty ($contradiction $)$. Thus we will assume $(X, mathcal{A}_0, mu)$ is σ-finite in this proof.
We first construct $f_0$ that holds for $g$ to be simple functions, i.e. we want $f_0$ satisfies
$$int_Ef dmu=int_E f_0 dmu,mbox{ for any }Einmathcal{A}_0tag{1}$$
Consider the $sigma$-finite measure space $(X,mathcal{A}_0,mu)$. Let $v$ be a measure defined on this space by $$v(E)=int_Ef dmumbox{ for my }Ein mathcal{A}_0$$
It is clear that $v$ is a $sigma$-finite measure and $v<<mu$. Radon-Nikodym theorem allows us to
construct an $mathcal{A}_0$-measurable function $f_0=dfrac{dv}{dmu}ge0$.
In the case when $gge0$ is $mathcal{A}_0$-measurable, we can find an increasing sequence of $mathcal{A}_0$-simple functions $psi_n$ converges to $g$ pointwise. Then $fpsi _n$ and $f_0psi _n$ monotonically converges to $fg$ and $f_0g$ respectively. By previous case and the Monotone convergence theorem$$int_Xfg d mu=limint_Xfpsi _n dmu=limint_Xf_0psi _n dmu=int_Xf_0g dmu$$
Therefore, $f_0$ satisfies all the hypotheses. By Radon-Nikodym construction, $f_0$ is unique up to $muupharpoonright mathcal{A}_0$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
I will add the fact that $mathcal{A}_0$ is $sigma$-finite. So the key was with the Radon-Nikodym Theorem. I'll have to do the reading again, I don't think I remember how to use the Theorem too well.
$endgroup$
– Darel
Jan 23 at 4:45
1
$begingroup$
@Darel Yes, the main point is to notice that $mathcal{A}_0$ is $sigma$-finite and to use Radon-Nikodym Theorem.
$endgroup$
– Key Flex
Jan 23 at 4:48
$begingroup$
Just to make this question a little more useful to anyone else reading, do you have any suggested readings?
$endgroup$
– Darel
Jan 23 at 4:49
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Notice that the above problem is false if we do not require $(X,mathcal{A}_0,mu)$ to be $sigma$-finite. As a counter-example, take the usual Lebesgue measure on $mathbb{R}$, and $mathcal{A}_0={∅,mathbb{R}}$. Let $g = 1$ and $f =X_{[0,1]}$. Then LHS is $1$ while RHS is either $0$ and $infty ($contradiction $)$. Thus we will assume $(X, mathcal{A}_0, mu)$ is σ-finite in this proof.
We first construct $f_0$ that holds for $g$ to be simple functions, i.e. we want $f_0$ satisfies
$$int_Ef dmu=int_E f_0 dmu,mbox{ for any }Einmathcal{A}_0tag{1}$$
Consider the $sigma$-finite measure space $(X,mathcal{A}_0,mu)$. Let $v$ be a measure defined on this space by $$v(E)=int_Ef dmumbox{ for my }Ein mathcal{A}_0$$
It is clear that $v$ is a $sigma$-finite measure and $v<<mu$. Radon-Nikodym theorem allows us to
construct an $mathcal{A}_0$-measurable function $f_0=dfrac{dv}{dmu}ge0$.
In the case when $gge0$ is $mathcal{A}_0$-measurable, we can find an increasing sequence of $mathcal{A}_0$-simple functions $psi_n$ converges to $g$ pointwise. Then $fpsi _n$ and $f_0psi _n$ monotonically converges to $fg$ and $f_0g$ respectively. By previous case and the Monotone convergence theorem$$int_Xfg d mu=limint_Xfpsi _n dmu=limint_Xf_0psi _n dmu=int_Xf_0g dmu$$
Therefore, $f_0$ satisfies all the hypotheses. By Radon-Nikodym construction, $f_0$ is unique up to $muupharpoonright mathcal{A}_0$
$endgroup$
Notice that the above problem is false if we do not require $(X,mathcal{A}_0,mu)$ to be $sigma$-finite. As a counter-example, take the usual Lebesgue measure on $mathbb{R}$, and $mathcal{A}_0={∅,mathbb{R}}$. Let $g = 1$ and $f =X_{[0,1]}$. Then LHS is $1$ while RHS is either $0$ and $infty ($contradiction $)$. Thus we will assume $(X, mathcal{A}_0, mu)$ is σ-finite in this proof.
We first construct $f_0$ that holds for $g$ to be simple functions, i.e. we want $f_0$ satisfies
$$int_Ef dmu=int_E f_0 dmu,mbox{ for any }Einmathcal{A}_0tag{1}$$
Consider the $sigma$-finite measure space $(X,mathcal{A}_0,mu)$. Let $v$ be a measure defined on this space by $$v(E)=int_Ef dmumbox{ for my }Ein mathcal{A}_0$$
It is clear that $v$ is a $sigma$-finite measure and $v<<mu$. Radon-Nikodym theorem allows us to
construct an $mathcal{A}_0$-measurable function $f_0=dfrac{dv}{dmu}ge0$.
In the case when $gge0$ is $mathcal{A}_0$-measurable, we can find an increasing sequence of $mathcal{A}_0$-simple functions $psi_n$ converges to $g$ pointwise. Then $fpsi _n$ and $f_0psi _n$ monotonically converges to $fg$ and $f_0g$ respectively. By previous case and the Monotone convergence theorem$$int_Xfg d mu=limint_Xfpsi _n dmu=limint_Xf_0psi _n dmu=int_Xf_0g dmu$$
Therefore, $f_0$ satisfies all the hypotheses. By Radon-Nikodym construction, $f_0$ is unique up to $muupharpoonright mathcal{A}_0$
answered Jan 23 at 4:40
Key FlexKey Flex
8,38261233
8,38261233
1
$begingroup$
I will add the fact that $mathcal{A}_0$ is $sigma$-finite. So the key was with the Radon-Nikodym Theorem. I'll have to do the reading again, I don't think I remember how to use the Theorem too well.
$endgroup$
– Darel
Jan 23 at 4:45
1
$begingroup$
@Darel Yes, the main point is to notice that $mathcal{A}_0$ is $sigma$-finite and to use Radon-Nikodym Theorem.
$endgroup$
– Key Flex
Jan 23 at 4:48
$begingroup$
Just to make this question a little more useful to anyone else reading, do you have any suggested readings?
$endgroup$
– Darel
Jan 23 at 4:49
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
I will add the fact that $mathcal{A}_0$ is $sigma$-finite. So the key was with the Radon-Nikodym Theorem. I'll have to do the reading again, I don't think I remember how to use the Theorem too well.
$endgroup$
– Darel
Jan 23 at 4:45
1
$begingroup$
@Darel Yes, the main point is to notice that $mathcal{A}_0$ is $sigma$-finite and to use Radon-Nikodym Theorem.
$endgroup$
– Key Flex
Jan 23 at 4:48
$begingroup$
Just to make this question a little more useful to anyone else reading, do you have any suggested readings?
$endgroup$
– Darel
Jan 23 at 4:49
1
1
$begingroup$
I will add the fact that $mathcal{A}_0$ is $sigma$-finite. So the key was with the Radon-Nikodym Theorem. I'll have to do the reading again, I don't think I remember how to use the Theorem too well.
$endgroup$
– Darel
Jan 23 at 4:45
$begingroup$
I will add the fact that $mathcal{A}_0$ is $sigma$-finite. So the key was with the Radon-Nikodym Theorem. I'll have to do the reading again, I don't think I remember how to use the Theorem too well.
$endgroup$
– Darel
Jan 23 at 4:45
1
1
$begingroup$
@Darel Yes, the main point is to notice that $mathcal{A}_0$ is $sigma$-finite and to use Radon-Nikodym Theorem.
$endgroup$
– Key Flex
Jan 23 at 4:48
$begingroup$
@Darel Yes, the main point is to notice that $mathcal{A}_0$ is $sigma$-finite and to use Radon-Nikodym Theorem.
$endgroup$
– Key Flex
Jan 23 at 4:48
$begingroup$
Just to make this question a little more useful to anyone else reading, do you have any suggested readings?
$endgroup$
– Darel
Jan 23 at 4:49
$begingroup$
Just to make this question a little more useful to anyone else reading, do you have any suggested readings?
$endgroup$
– Darel
Jan 23 at 4:49
add a comment |
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