Find the orthogonal complement on $L^2[0,1]$ of all polynomials.












0












$begingroup$


The problem:



Determine the orthogonal complement on $L^2[0,1]$ to all polynomials.



My approach and intuition thus far:



I know for sure intuitively that the orthogonal complement would just be the space containing the zero function. I have two approaches to the problem,



(1) I would use the Stone-Weierstrass Approximation theorem to show that the polynomials are dense in the space of functions on $C[0,1]$. Since $C[0,1]$ is dense in $L^2[0,1]$ the proof would follow by noting the property:
Given a Hilbert Space $V$, the orthogonal complement has the property that:
$V^perp=overline{V}^perp$.



So then I would have to find the orthogonal complement to all functions which is just going to be the zero function.



(2) The other approach I had was to consider the orthogonal basis of all polynomials on $L^2[0,1]$. Then, I would just find the orthogonal complement of the basis.













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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    (1) Correct. You just have to be careful with the two different norms $|cdot|_infty$ and $|cdot|_2$. (2) What basis are you refering to?
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    Jan 26 at 21:08










  • $begingroup$
    For (2) I was referring to the orthogonal basis of all polynomials.
    $endgroup$
    – Darel
    Jan 26 at 21:09










  • $begingroup$
    Repetitions of what you already phrased don't bring us any further. The truth is that there doesn't exist an "orthonormal basis of all polynomials". I ask again: what do you mean?
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    Jan 26 at 21:11






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The fact that you write "orthogonal basis of all polynomials" tells me that you have not quite understood what you are supposed to in the exercise. Hilbert spaces have orthogonal (better: orthonormal) bases. But the space of all polynomials is not a Hilbert space because it is not complete. It can be seen as a subspace of $L^2[0,1]$, but this subspace is not closed. You have to show that its closure (which is much bigger) is in fact $L^2[0,1]$. However, there are orthonormal bases of $L^2[0,1]$ consisting of polynomials. But showing that their span is dense is in general hard to do.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    Jan 26 at 21:34








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yeah, and it's basically one line. You only have to show that the polynomials are dense in $L^2[0,1]$, meaning that you can approximate every $L^2$-function arbitrarily well by a polynomial in the $L^2$-norm.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    Jan 26 at 21:50
















0












$begingroup$


The problem:



Determine the orthogonal complement on $L^2[0,1]$ to all polynomials.



My approach and intuition thus far:



I know for sure intuitively that the orthogonal complement would just be the space containing the zero function. I have two approaches to the problem,



(1) I would use the Stone-Weierstrass Approximation theorem to show that the polynomials are dense in the space of functions on $C[0,1]$. Since $C[0,1]$ is dense in $L^2[0,1]$ the proof would follow by noting the property:
Given a Hilbert Space $V$, the orthogonal complement has the property that:
$V^perp=overline{V}^perp$.



So then I would have to find the orthogonal complement to all functions which is just going to be the zero function.



(2) The other approach I had was to consider the orthogonal basis of all polynomials on $L^2[0,1]$. Then, I would just find the orthogonal complement of the basis.













share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    (1) Correct. You just have to be careful with the two different norms $|cdot|_infty$ and $|cdot|_2$. (2) What basis are you refering to?
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    Jan 26 at 21:08










  • $begingroup$
    For (2) I was referring to the orthogonal basis of all polynomials.
    $endgroup$
    – Darel
    Jan 26 at 21:09










  • $begingroup$
    Repetitions of what you already phrased don't bring us any further. The truth is that there doesn't exist an "orthonormal basis of all polynomials". I ask again: what do you mean?
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    Jan 26 at 21:11






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The fact that you write "orthogonal basis of all polynomials" tells me that you have not quite understood what you are supposed to in the exercise. Hilbert spaces have orthogonal (better: orthonormal) bases. But the space of all polynomials is not a Hilbert space because it is not complete. It can be seen as a subspace of $L^2[0,1]$, but this subspace is not closed. You have to show that its closure (which is much bigger) is in fact $L^2[0,1]$. However, there are orthonormal bases of $L^2[0,1]$ consisting of polynomials. But showing that their span is dense is in general hard to do.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    Jan 26 at 21:34








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yeah, and it's basically one line. You only have to show that the polynomials are dense in $L^2[0,1]$, meaning that you can approximate every $L^2$-function arbitrarily well by a polynomial in the $L^2$-norm.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    Jan 26 at 21:50














0












0








0





$begingroup$


The problem:



Determine the orthogonal complement on $L^2[0,1]$ to all polynomials.



My approach and intuition thus far:



I know for sure intuitively that the orthogonal complement would just be the space containing the zero function. I have two approaches to the problem,



(1) I would use the Stone-Weierstrass Approximation theorem to show that the polynomials are dense in the space of functions on $C[0,1]$. Since $C[0,1]$ is dense in $L^2[0,1]$ the proof would follow by noting the property:
Given a Hilbert Space $V$, the orthogonal complement has the property that:
$V^perp=overline{V}^perp$.



So then I would have to find the orthogonal complement to all functions which is just going to be the zero function.



(2) The other approach I had was to consider the orthogonal basis of all polynomials on $L^2[0,1]$. Then, I would just find the orthogonal complement of the basis.













share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




The problem:



Determine the orthogonal complement on $L^2[0,1]$ to all polynomials.



My approach and intuition thus far:



I know for sure intuitively that the orthogonal complement would just be the space containing the zero function. I have two approaches to the problem,



(1) I would use the Stone-Weierstrass Approximation theorem to show that the polynomials are dense in the space of functions on $C[0,1]$. Since $C[0,1]$ is dense in $L^2[0,1]$ the proof would follow by noting the property:
Given a Hilbert Space $V$, the orthogonal complement has the property that:
$V^perp=overline{V}^perp$.



So then I would have to find the orthogonal complement to all functions which is just going to be the zero function.



(2) The other approach I had was to consider the orthogonal basis of all polynomials on $L^2[0,1]$. Then, I would just find the orthogonal complement of the basis.










real-analysis hilbert-spaces banach-spaces lp-spaces






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 26 at 21:08







Darel

















asked Jan 26 at 21:03









DarelDarel

1249




1249












  • $begingroup$
    (1) Correct. You just have to be careful with the two different norms $|cdot|_infty$ and $|cdot|_2$. (2) What basis are you refering to?
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    Jan 26 at 21:08










  • $begingroup$
    For (2) I was referring to the orthogonal basis of all polynomials.
    $endgroup$
    – Darel
    Jan 26 at 21:09










  • $begingroup$
    Repetitions of what you already phrased don't bring us any further. The truth is that there doesn't exist an "orthonormal basis of all polynomials". I ask again: what do you mean?
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    Jan 26 at 21:11






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The fact that you write "orthogonal basis of all polynomials" tells me that you have not quite understood what you are supposed to in the exercise. Hilbert spaces have orthogonal (better: orthonormal) bases. But the space of all polynomials is not a Hilbert space because it is not complete. It can be seen as a subspace of $L^2[0,1]$, but this subspace is not closed. You have to show that its closure (which is much bigger) is in fact $L^2[0,1]$. However, there are orthonormal bases of $L^2[0,1]$ consisting of polynomials. But showing that their span is dense is in general hard to do.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    Jan 26 at 21:34








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yeah, and it's basically one line. You only have to show that the polynomials are dense in $L^2[0,1]$, meaning that you can approximate every $L^2$-function arbitrarily well by a polynomial in the $L^2$-norm.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    Jan 26 at 21:50


















  • $begingroup$
    (1) Correct. You just have to be careful with the two different norms $|cdot|_infty$ and $|cdot|_2$. (2) What basis are you refering to?
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    Jan 26 at 21:08










  • $begingroup$
    For (2) I was referring to the orthogonal basis of all polynomials.
    $endgroup$
    – Darel
    Jan 26 at 21:09










  • $begingroup$
    Repetitions of what you already phrased don't bring us any further. The truth is that there doesn't exist an "orthonormal basis of all polynomials". I ask again: what do you mean?
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    Jan 26 at 21:11






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The fact that you write "orthogonal basis of all polynomials" tells me that you have not quite understood what you are supposed to in the exercise. Hilbert spaces have orthogonal (better: orthonormal) bases. But the space of all polynomials is not a Hilbert space because it is not complete. It can be seen as a subspace of $L^2[0,1]$, but this subspace is not closed. You have to show that its closure (which is much bigger) is in fact $L^2[0,1]$. However, there are orthonormal bases of $L^2[0,1]$ consisting of polynomials. But showing that their span is dense is in general hard to do.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    Jan 26 at 21:34








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yeah, and it's basically one line. You only have to show that the polynomials are dense in $L^2[0,1]$, meaning that you can approximate every $L^2$-function arbitrarily well by a polynomial in the $L^2$-norm.
    $endgroup$
    – amsmath
    Jan 26 at 21:50
















$begingroup$
(1) Correct. You just have to be careful with the two different norms $|cdot|_infty$ and $|cdot|_2$. (2) What basis are you refering to?
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Jan 26 at 21:08




$begingroup$
(1) Correct. You just have to be careful with the two different norms $|cdot|_infty$ and $|cdot|_2$. (2) What basis are you refering to?
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Jan 26 at 21:08












$begingroup$
For (2) I was referring to the orthogonal basis of all polynomials.
$endgroup$
– Darel
Jan 26 at 21:09




$begingroup$
For (2) I was referring to the orthogonal basis of all polynomials.
$endgroup$
– Darel
Jan 26 at 21:09












$begingroup$
Repetitions of what you already phrased don't bring us any further. The truth is that there doesn't exist an "orthonormal basis of all polynomials". I ask again: what do you mean?
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Jan 26 at 21:11




$begingroup$
Repetitions of what you already phrased don't bring us any further. The truth is that there doesn't exist an "orthonormal basis of all polynomials". I ask again: what do you mean?
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Jan 26 at 21:11




1




1




$begingroup$
The fact that you write "orthogonal basis of all polynomials" tells me that you have not quite understood what you are supposed to in the exercise. Hilbert spaces have orthogonal (better: orthonormal) bases. But the space of all polynomials is not a Hilbert space because it is not complete. It can be seen as a subspace of $L^2[0,1]$, but this subspace is not closed. You have to show that its closure (which is much bigger) is in fact $L^2[0,1]$. However, there are orthonormal bases of $L^2[0,1]$ consisting of polynomials. But showing that their span is dense is in general hard to do.
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Jan 26 at 21:34






$begingroup$
The fact that you write "orthogonal basis of all polynomials" tells me that you have not quite understood what you are supposed to in the exercise. Hilbert spaces have orthogonal (better: orthonormal) bases. But the space of all polynomials is not a Hilbert space because it is not complete. It can be seen as a subspace of $L^2[0,1]$, but this subspace is not closed. You have to show that its closure (which is much bigger) is in fact $L^2[0,1]$. However, there are orthonormal bases of $L^2[0,1]$ consisting of polynomials. But showing that their span is dense is in general hard to do.
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Jan 26 at 21:34






1




1




$begingroup$
Yeah, and it's basically one line. You only have to show that the polynomials are dense in $L^2[0,1]$, meaning that you can approximate every $L^2$-function arbitrarily well by a polynomial in the $L^2$-norm.
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Jan 26 at 21:50




$begingroup$
Yeah, and it's basically one line. You only have to show that the polynomials are dense in $L^2[0,1]$, meaning that you can approximate every $L^2$-function arbitrarily well by a polynomial in the $L^2$-norm.
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Jan 26 at 21:50










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Going with route (1) would be the easiest way to go. If I understand what you mean by (2), i.e., finding a maximal orthonormal set of polynomials and showing that this set of polynomials has no orthogonal complement, doesn't really gain you anything; you still need to show that the orthogonal complement of a set is zero, and you don't gain anything by only considering only an orthonormal subset.






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    $begingroup$

    Going with route (1) would be the easiest way to go. If I understand what you mean by (2), i.e., finding a maximal orthonormal set of polynomials and showing that this set of polynomials has no orthogonal complement, doesn't really gain you anything; you still need to show that the orthogonal complement of a set is zero, and you don't gain anything by only considering only an orthonormal subset.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      Going with route (1) would be the easiest way to go. If I understand what you mean by (2), i.e., finding a maximal orthonormal set of polynomials and showing that this set of polynomials has no orthogonal complement, doesn't really gain you anything; you still need to show that the orthogonal complement of a set is zero, and you don't gain anything by only considering only an orthonormal subset.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Going with route (1) would be the easiest way to go. If I understand what you mean by (2), i.e., finding a maximal orthonormal set of polynomials and showing that this set of polynomials has no orthogonal complement, doesn't really gain you anything; you still need to show that the orthogonal complement of a set is zero, and you don't gain anything by only considering only an orthonormal subset.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Going with route (1) would be the easiest way to go. If I understand what you mean by (2), i.e., finding a maximal orthonormal set of polynomials and showing that this set of polynomials has no orthogonal complement, doesn't really gain you anything; you still need to show that the orthogonal complement of a set is zero, and you don't gain anything by only considering only an orthonormal subset.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 26 at 21:16









        AweyganAweygan

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