Understanding an excerpt of notes on RSA using the Chinese Remainder theorem












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I have a description in my cryptography notes of a way to make RSA more efficient using the Chinese Remainder Theorem. Let $p,q$ be large primes, $N=pq$ , $e$ be the public encryption exponent, $d$ the private encryption exponent. I will only ask about the excerpt I don't understand for brevity. Let $C$ be the ciphertext and $M equiv C^d mod N$




  1. Compute $d_p equiv d mod (p-1)$, $d_q equiv d mod (q-1)$

  2. Compute $C_p equiv C (mod p)$, $C_q equiv C (mod q)$,

  3. Compute $M_p equiv C_p^{d_p} (mod p)$, $M_q equiv C_q^{d_q} (mod q)$

  4. Compute the unique $M_1$ such that $M equiv M_p (mod p)$ and $M equiv M_q (mod q)$ using the Chinese remainder theorem


Then the author states without proof that:



** $M equiv C^d equiv C_p^{d_p} equiv M_1 (mod p)$



referring to "an earlier result about groups" as the reason for this claim and that $p-1$ divides $d-d_p$.



Why is (**) this true?










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    ** is true, because $C_pequiv C bmod p$ and $C^pequiv Cbmod p$ by little Fermat.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 26 at 20:01










  • $begingroup$
    @DietrichBurde where does $p$ come from we are raising $C$ to $d_p$.
    $endgroup$
    – IntegrateThis
    Jan 26 at 20:06










  • $begingroup$
    @DietrichBurde I think I understand, see my answer.
    $endgroup$
    – IntegrateThis
    Jan 26 at 21:53
















0












$begingroup$


I have a description in my cryptography notes of a way to make RSA more efficient using the Chinese Remainder Theorem. Let $p,q$ be large primes, $N=pq$ , $e$ be the public encryption exponent, $d$ the private encryption exponent. I will only ask about the excerpt I don't understand for brevity. Let $C$ be the ciphertext and $M equiv C^d mod N$




  1. Compute $d_p equiv d mod (p-1)$, $d_q equiv d mod (q-1)$

  2. Compute $C_p equiv C (mod p)$, $C_q equiv C (mod q)$,

  3. Compute $M_p equiv C_p^{d_p} (mod p)$, $M_q equiv C_q^{d_q} (mod q)$

  4. Compute the unique $M_1$ such that $M equiv M_p (mod p)$ and $M equiv M_q (mod q)$ using the Chinese remainder theorem


Then the author states without proof that:



** $M equiv C^d equiv C_p^{d_p} equiv M_1 (mod p)$



referring to "an earlier result about groups" as the reason for this claim and that $p-1$ divides $d-d_p$.



Why is (**) this true?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    ** is true, because $C_pequiv C bmod p$ and $C^pequiv Cbmod p$ by little Fermat.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 26 at 20:01










  • $begingroup$
    @DietrichBurde where does $p$ come from we are raising $C$ to $d_p$.
    $endgroup$
    – IntegrateThis
    Jan 26 at 20:06










  • $begingroup$
    @DietrichBurde I think I understand, see my answer.
    $endgroup$
    – IntegrateThis
    Jan 26 at 21:53














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I have a description in my cryptography notes of a way to make RSA more efficient using the Chinese Remainder Theorem. Let $p,q$ be large primes, $N=pq$ , $e$ be the public encryption exponent, $d$ the private encryption exponent. I will only ask about the excerpt I don't understand for brevity. Let $C$ be the ciphertext and $M equiv C^d mod N$




  1. Compute $d_p equiv d mod (p-1)$, $d_q equiv d mod (q-1)$

  2. Compute $C_p equiv C (mod p)$, $C_q equiv C (mod q)$,

  3. Compute $M_p equiv C_p^{d_p} (mod p)$, $M_q equiv C_q^{d_q} (mod q)$

  4. Compute the unique $M_1$ such that $M equiv M_p (mod p)$ and $M equiv M_q (mod q)$ using the Chinese remainder theorem


Then the author states without proof that:



** $M equiv C^d equiv C_p^{d_p} equiv M_1 (mod p)$



referring to "an earlier result about groups" as the reason for this claim and that $p-1$ divides $d-d_p$.



Why is (**) this true?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I have a description in my cryptography notes of a way to make RSA more efficient using the Chinese Remainder Theorem. Let $p,q$ be large primes, $N=pq$ , $e$ be the public encryption exponent, $d$ the private encryption exponent. I will only ask about the excerpt I don't understand for brevity. Let $C$ be the ciphertext and $M equiv C^d mod N$




  1. Compute $d_p equiv d mod (p-1)$, $d_q equiv d mod (q-1)$

  2. Compute $C_p equiv C (mod p)$, $C_q equiv C (mod q)$,

  3. Compute $M_p equiv C_p^{d_p} (mod p)$, $M_q equiv C_q^{d_q} (mod q)$

  4. Compute the unique $M_1$ such that $M equiv M_p (mod p)$ and $M equiv M_q (mod q)$ using the Chinese remainder theorem


Then the author states without proof that:



** $M equiv C^d equiv C_p^{d_p} equiv M_1 (mod p)$



referring to "an earlier result about groups" as the reason for this claim and that $p-1$ divides $d-d_p$.



Why is (**) this true?







cryptography






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edited Jan 26 at 19:54







IntegrateThis

















asked Jan 26 at 19:34









IntegrateThisIntegrateThis

1,9441818




1,9441818












  • $begingroup$
    ** is true, because $C_pequiv C bmod p$ and $C^pequiv Cbmod p$ by little Fermat.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 26 at 20:01










  • $begingroup$
    @DietrichBurde where does $p$ come from we are raising $C$ to $d_p$.
    $endgroup$
    – IntegrateThis
    Jan 26 at 20:06










  • $begingroup$
    @DietrichBurde I think I understand, see my answer.
    $endgroup$
    – IntegrateThis
    Jan 26 at 21:53


















  • $begingroup$
    ** is true, because $C_pequiv C bmod p$ and $C^pequiv Cbmod p$ by little Fermat.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 26 at 20:01










  • $begingroup$
    @DietrichBurde where does $p$ come from we are raising $C$ to $d_p$.
    $endgroup$
    – IntegrateThis
    Jan 26 at 20:06










  • $begingroup$
    @DietrichBurde I think I understand, see my answer.
    $endgroup$
    – IntegrateThis
    Jan 26 at 21:53
















$begingroup$
** is true, because $C_pequiv C bmod p$ and $C^pequiv Cbmod p$ by little Fermat.
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Jan 26 at 20:01




$begingroup$
** is true, because $C_pequiv C bmod p$ and $C^pequiv Cbmod p$ by little Fermat.
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Jan 26 at 20:01












$begingroup$
@DietrichBurde where does $p$ come from we are raising $C$ to $d_p$.
$endgroup$
– IntegrateThis
Jan 26 at 20:06




$begingroup$
@DietrichBurde where does $p$ come from we are raising $C$ to $d_p$.
$endgroup$
– IntegrateThis
Jan 26 at 20:06












$begingroup$
@DietrichBurde I think I understand, see my answer.
$endgroup$
– IntegrateThis
Jan 26 at 21:53




$begingroup$
@DietrichBurde I think I understand, see my answer.
$endgroup$
– IntegrateThis
Jan 26 at 21:53










1 Answer
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Here is what I have deduced (I admit this could be wrong). Since $p-1$ divides $d-d_p$, then for some $k$ we have $k(p-1)=d-d_p$, so that $d_p=d-k(p-1)$ but then by Fermat's little theorem:



$C^{d_p}equiv C^{d-k(p-1)}equiv C^dC^{-k(p-1)} equiv C^d(1)^{-k} = C^d (mod p)$






share|cite|improve this answer









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    $begingroup$

    Here is what I have deduced (I admit this could be wrong). Since $p-1$ divides $d-d_p$, then for some $k$ we have $k(p-1)=d-d_p$, so that $d_p=d-k(p-1)$ but then by Fermat's little theorem:



    $C^{d_p}equiv C^{d-k(p-1)}equiv C^dC^{-k(p-1)} equiv C^d(1)^{-k} = C^d (mod p)$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      Here is what I have deduced (I admit this could be wrong). Since $p-1$ divides $d-d_p$, then for some $k$ we have $k(p-1)=d-d_p$, so that $d_p=d-k(p-1)$ but then by Fermat's little theorem:



      $C^{d_p}equiv C^{d-k(p-1)}equiv C^dC^{-k(p-1)} equiv C^d(1)^{-k} = C^d (mod p)$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        Here is what I have deduced (I admit this could be wrong). Since $p-1$ divides $d-d_p$, then for some $k$ we have $k(p-1)=d-d_p$, so that $d_p=d-k(p-1)$ but then by Fermat's little theorem:



        $C^{d_p}equiv C^{d-k(p-1)}equiv C^dC^{-k(p-1)} equiv C^d(1)^{-k} = C^d (mod p)$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Here is what I have deduced (I admit this could be wrong). Since $p-1$ divides $d-d_p$, then for some $k$ we have $k(p-1)=d-d_p$, so that $d_p=d-k(p-1)$ but then by Fermat's little theorem:



        $C^{d_p}equiv C^{d-k(p-1)}equiv C^dC^{-k(p-1)} equiv C^d(1)^{-k} = C^d (mod p)$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 26 at 21:44









        IntegrateThisIntegrateThis

        1,9441818




        1,9441818






























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