Assume that $X$ and $Y$ have joint probability density function $f_{X,Y}$. Calculate the joint probability...
$begingroup$
Assume that $X$ and $Y$ have the following joint probability density function
$$f_{X,Y}(x,y) =
begin{cases}
displaystylefrac{1}{x^{2}y^{2}} & text{if},,xgeq 1,,text{and},,ygeq 1\\
,,,,,0 & text{otherwise}
end{cases}$$
(a) Calculate the joint probability density function of $U = XY$ and $V = X/Y$.
(b) What are the marginal density functions?
MY SOLUTION
(a) To begin with, notice that $u geq 1$ and $v > 0$. Moreover, we have $X = sqrt{UV}$ and $Y = sqrt{U/V}$. From whence we conclude that
begin{align*}
f_{U,V}(u,v) = f_{X,Y}(sqrt{uv},sqrt{uv^{-1}})|det J(u,v)|
end{align*}
where $J(u,v)$ is given by
begin{align*}
begin{vmatrix}
displaystylefrac{partial x}{partial u} & displaystylefrac{partial x}{partial v} \
displaystylefrac{partial y}{partial u} & displaystylefrac{partial y}{partial v}
end{vmatrix} =
begin{vmatrix}
displaystylefrac{v}{2sqrt{uv}} & displaystylefrac{u}{2sqrt{uv}} \
displaystylefrac{1}{2sqrt{uv}} & displaystyle-frac{sqrt{u}}{2sqrt{v^{3}}}
end{vmatrix} = -frac{1}{4v} - frac{1}{4v} = -frac{1}{2v}
end{align*}
Therefore we have
begin{align*}
f_{U,V}(u,v) = frac{1}{2u^{2}v}
end{align*}
(b) Once you have the joint probability density function, you can determine the marginal distributions through the formulas
begin{cases}
f_{U}(u) = displaystyleint_{-infty}^{+infty}f_{U,V}(u,v)mathrm{d}v\\
f_{V}(v) = displaystyleint_{-infty}^{+infty}f_{U,V}(u,v)mathrm{d}u
end{cases}
My question is: where things went wrong? I cannot find out where are the miscalculations of $f_{U,V}$ since its integral does not converge to $1$. Any help is appreciated. Thanks in advance!
probability probability-theory density-function change-of-variable
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Assume that $X$ and $Y$ have the following joint probability density function
$$f_{X,Y}(x,y) =
begin{cases}
displaystylefrac{1}{x^{2}y^{2}} & text{if},,xgeq 1,,text{and},,ygeq 1\\
,,,,,0 & text{otherwise}
end{cases}$$
(a) Calculate the joint probability density function of $U = XY$ and $V = X/Y$.
(b) What are the marginal density functions?
MY SOLUTION
(a) To begin with, notice that $u geq 1$ and $v > 0$. Moreover, we have $X = sqrt{UV}$ and $Y = sqrt{U/V}$. From whence we conclude that
begin{align*}
f_{U,V}(u,v) = f_{X,Y}(sqrt{uv},sqrt{uv^{-1}})|det J(u,v)|
end{align*}
where $J(u,v)$ is given by
begin{align*}
begin{vmatrix}
displaystylefrac{partial x}{partial u} & displaystylefrac{partial x}{partial v} \
displaystylefrac{partial y}{partial u} & displaystylefrac{partial y}{partial v}
end{vmatrix} =
begin{vmatrix}
displaystylefrac{v}{2sqrt{uv}} & displaystylefrac{u}{2sqrt{uv}} \
displaystylefrac{1}{2sqrt{uv}} & displaystyle-frac{sqrt{u}}{2sqrt{v^{3}}}
end{vmatrix} = -frac{1}{4v} - frac{1}{4v} = -frac{1}{2v}
end{align*}
Therefore we have
begin{align*}
f_{U,V}(u,v) = frac{1}{2u^{2}v}
end{align*}
(b) Once you have the joint probability density function, you can determine the marginal distributions through the formulas
begin{cases}
f_{U}(u) = displaystyleint_{-infty}^{+infty}f_{U,V}(u,v)mathrm{d}v\\
f_{V}(v) = displaystyleint_{-infty}^{+infty}f_{U,V}(u,v)mathrm{d}u
end{cases}
My question is: where things went wrong? I cannot find out where are the miscalculations of $f_{U,V}$ since its integral does not converge to $1$. Any help is appreciated. Thanks in advance!
probability probability-theory density-function change-of-variable
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Part (a) does not include the support for the function, therefore how can you know where to integrate in part (b).
$endgroup$
– Graham Kemp
Feb 1 at 0:53
$begingroup$
Perhaps I have misunderstood your question, but I have pointed out that $(u,v)in[1,+infty)times(0,+infty)$. Is this it you were talking about?
$endgroup$
– APC89
Feb 1 at 0:55
$begingroup$
That's not the support. As hypermova notes, you have to be very careful with the transformation.
$endgroup$
– Graham Kemp
Feb 1 at 1:12
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Assume that $X$ and $Y$ have the following joint probability density function
$$f_{X,Y}(x,y) =
begin{cases}
displaystylefrac{1}{x^{2}y^{2}} & text{if},,xgeq 1,,text{and},,ygeq 1\\
,,,,,0 & text{otherwise}
end{cases}$$
(a) Calculate the joint probability density function of $U = XY$ and $V = X/Y$.
(b) What are the marginal density functions?
MY SOLUTION
(a) To begin with, notice that $u geq 1$ and $v > 0$. Moreover, we have $X = sqrt{UV}$ and $Y = sqrt{U/V}$. From whence we conclude that
begin{align*}
f_{U,V}(u,v) = f_{X,Y}(sqrt{uv},sqrt{uv^{-1}})|det J(u,v)|
end{align*}
where $J(u,v)$ is given by
begin{align*}
begin{vmatrix}
displaystylefrac{partial x}{partial u} & displaystylefrac{partial x}{partial v} \
displaystylefrac{partial y}{partial u} & displaystylefrac{partial y}{partial v}
end{vmatrix} =
begin{vmatrix}
displaystylefrac{v}{2sqrt{uv}} & displaystylefrac{u}{2sqrt{uv}} \
displaystylefrac{1}{2sqrt{uv}} & displaystyle-frac{sqrt{u}}{2sqrt{v^{3}}}
end{vmatrix} = -frac{1}{4v} - frac{1}{4v} = -frac{1}{2v}
end{align*}
Therefore we have
begin{align*}
f_{U,V}(u,v) = frac{1}{2u^{2}v}
end{align*}
(b) Once you have the joint probability density function, you can determine the marginal distributions through the formulas
begin{cases}
f_{U}(u) = displaystyleint_{-infty}^{+infty}f_{U,V}(u,v)mathrm{d}v\\
f_{V}(v) = displaystyleint_{-infty}^{+infty}f_{U,V}(u,v)mathrm{d}u
end{cases}
My question is: where things went wrong? I cannot find out where are the miscalculations of $f_{U,V}$ since its integral does not converge to $1$. Any help is appreciated. Thanks in advance!
probability probability-theory density-function change-of-variable
$endgroup$
Assume that $X$ and $Y$ have the following joint probability density function
$$f_{X,Y}(x,y) =
begin{cases}
displaystylefrac{1}{x^{2}y^{2}} & text{if},,xgeq 1,,text{and},,ygeq 1\\
,,,,,0 & text{otherwise}
end{cases}$$
(a) Calculate the joint probability density function of $U = XY$ and $V = X/Y$.
(b) What are the marginal density functions?
MY SOLUTION
(a) To begin with, notice that $u geq 1$ and $v > 0$. Moreover, we have $X = sqrt{UV}$ and $Y = sqrt{U/V}$. From whence we conclude that
begin{align*}
f_{U,V}(u,v) = f_{X,Y}(sqrt{uv},sqrt{uv^{-1}})|det J(u,v)|
end{align*}
where $J(u,v)$ is given by
begin{align*}
begin{vmatrix}
displaystylefrac{partial x}{partial u} & displaystylefrac{partial x}{partial v} \
displaystylefrac{partial y}{partial u} & displaystylefrac{partial y}{partial v}
end{vmatrix} =
begin{vmatrix}
displaystylefrac{v}{2sqrt{uv}} & displaystylefrac{u}{2sqrt{uv}} \
displaystylefrac{1}{2sqrt{uv}} & displaystyle-frac{sqrt{u}}{2sqrt{v^{3}}}
end{vmatrix} = -frac{1}{4v} - frac{1}{4v} = -frac{1}{2v}
end{align*}
Therefore we have
begin{align*}
f_{U,V}(u,v) = frac{1}{2u^{2}v}
end{align*}
(b) Once you have the joint probability density function, you can determine the marginal distributions through the formulas
begin{cases}
f_{U}(u) = displaystyleint_{-infty}^{+infty}f_{U,V}(u,v)mathrm{d}v\\
f_{V}(v) = displaystyleint_{-infty}^{+infty}f_{U,V}(u,v)mathrm{d}u
end{cases}
My question is: where things went wrong? I cannot find out where are the miscalculations of $f_{U,V}$ since its integral does not converge to $1$. Any help is appreciated. Thanks in advance!
probability probability-theory density-function change-of-variable
probability probability-theory density-function change-of-variable
asked Feb 1 at 0:26
APC89APC89
2,371720
2,371720
$begingroup$
Part (a) does not include the support for the function, therefore how can you know where to integrate in part (b).
$endgroup$
– Graham Kemp
Feb 1 at 0:53
$begingroup$
Perhaps I have misunderstood your question, but I have pointed out that $(u,v)in[1,+infty)times(0,+infty)$. Is this it you were talking about?
$endgroup$
– APC89
Feb 1 at 0:55
$begingroup$
That's not the support. As hypermova notes, you have to be very careful with the transformation.
$endgroup$
– Graham Kemp
Feb 1 at 1:12
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Part (a) does not include the support for the function, therefore how can you know where to integrate in part (b).
$endgroup$
– Graham Kemp
Feb 1 at 0:53
$begingroup$
Perhaps I have misunderstood your question, but I have pointed out that $(u,v)in[1,+infty)times(0,+infty)$. Is this it you were talking about?
$endgroup$
– APC89
Feb 1 at 0:55
$begingroup$
That's not the support. As hypermova notes, you have to be very careful with the transformation.
$endgroup$
– Graham Kemp
Feb 1 at 1:12
$begingroup$
Part (a) does not include the support for the function, therefore how can you know where to integrate in part (b).
$endgroup$
– Graham Kemp
Feb 1 at 0:53
$begingroup$
Part (a) does not include the support for the function, therefore how can you know where to integrate in part (b).
$endgroup$
– Graham Kemp
Feb 1 at 0:53
$begingroup$
Perhaps I have misunderstood your question, but I have pointed out that $(u,v)in[1,+infty)times(0,+infty)$. Is this it you were talking about?
$endgroup$
– APC89
Feb 1 at 0:55
$begingroup$
Perhaps I have misunderstood your question, but I have pointed out that $(u,v)in[1,+infty)times(0,+infty)$. Is this it you were talking about?
$endgroup$
– APC89
Feb 1 at 0:55
$begingroup$
That's not the support. As hypermova notes, you have to be very careful with the transformation.
$endgroup$
– Graham Kemp
Feb 1 at 1:12
$begingroup$
That's not the support. As hypermova notes, you have to be very careful with the transformation.
$endgroup$
– Graham Kemp
Feb 1 at 1:12
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Consider $U=XY, V=X/Y$, gives us that $X^2/U=V$ and $Y^2V=U$
Then as $1leq X, 1leq Y$, we have ${(U,V):1leq U ~,~ 1/Uleq Vleq U}$ as the support.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you very much! Could you please include the marginal density functions in your answer? I'd be greatly thankful for that.
$endgroup$
– APC89
Feb 1 at 2:17
1
$begingroup$
Just integrate $$begin{align}f_U(u) &= mathbf 1_{1leq u}dfrac 1{2u^2} int_{1/u}^u dfrac 1vmathsf d v\ f_V(v) &=mathbf 1_{0<v< 1}dfrac 1{2v}int_{1/v}^inftydfrac1{u^2}mathsf du+mathbf 1_{1leq v}dfrac 1{2v}int_{v}^inftydfrac1{u^2}mathsf du end{align}$$
$endgroup$
– Graham Kemp
Feb 1 at 3:34
$begingroup$
Thanks again :)
$endgroup$
– APC89
Feb 1 at 4:17
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The problem lies in that the domain
$$
left(x,yright)inleft[1,inftyright)^2
$$
and
$$
left(u,vright)inleft[1,inftyright)timesleft(0,inftyright)
$$
are not equivalent under your transformation. Instead, you may check that
$$
left{left(xy,x/yright):left(x,yright)inleft[1,inftyright)^2right}=left{yle xright}capleft{yge 1/xright}.
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
Your Answer
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Consider $U=XY, V=X/Y$, gives us that $X^2/U=V$ and $Y^2V=U$
Then as $1leq X, 1leq Y$, we have ${(U,V):1leq U ~,~ 1/Uleq Vleq U}$ as the support.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you very much! Could you please include the marginal density functions in your answer? I'd be greatly thankful for that.
$endgroup$
– APC89
Feb 1 at 2:17
1
$begingroup$
Just integrate $$begin{align}f_U(u) &= mathbf 1_{1leq u}dfrac 1{2u^2} int_{1/u}^u dfrac 1vmathsf d v\ f_V(v) &=mathbf 1_{0<v< 1}dfrac 1{2v}int_{1/v}^inftydfrac1{u^2}mathsf du+mathbf 1_{1leq v}dfrac 1{2v}int_{v}^inftydfrac1{u^2}mathsf du end{align}$$
$endgroup$
– Graham Kemp
Feb 1 at 3:34
$begingroup$
Thanks again :)
$endgroup$
– APC89
Feb 1 at 4:17
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Consider $U=XY, V=X/Y$, gives us that $X^2/U=V$ and $Y^2V=U$
Then as $1leq X, 1leq Y$, we have ${(U,V):1leq U ~,~ 1/Uleq Vleq U}$ as the support.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you very much! Could you please include the marginal density functions in your answer? I'd be greatly thankful for that.
$endgroup$
– APC89
Feb 1 at 2:17
1
$begingroup$
Just integrate $$begin{align}f_U(u) &= mathbf 1_{1leq u}dfrac 1{2u^2} int_{1/u}^u dfrac 1vmathsf d v\ f_V(v) &=mathbf 1_{0<v< 1}dfrac 1{2v}int_{1/v}^inftydfrac1{u^2}mathsf du+mathbf 1_{1leq v}dfrac 1{2v}int_{v}^inftydfrac1{u^2}mathsf du end{align}$$
$endgroup$
– Graham Kemp
Feb 1 at 3:34
$begingroup$
Thanks again :)
$endgroup$
– APC89
Feb 1 at 4:17
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Consider $U=XY, V=X/Y$, gives us that $X^2/U=V$ and $Y^2V=U$
Then as $1leq X, 1leq Y$, we have ${(U,V):1leq U ~,~ 1/Uleq Vleq U}$ as the support.
$endgroup$
Consider $U=XY, V=X/Y$, gives us that $X^2/U=V$ and $Y^2V=U$
Then as $1leq X, 1leq Y$, we have ${(U,V):1leq U ~,~ 1/Uleq Vleq U}$ as the support.
answered Feb 1 at 2:07


Graham KempGraham Kemp
87.8k43578
87.8k43578
$begingroup$
Thank you very much! Could you please include the marginal density functions in your answer? I'd be greatly thankful for that.
$endgroup$
– APC89
Feb 1 at 2:17
1
$begingroup$
Just integrate $$begin{align}f_U(u) &= mathbf 1_{1leq u}dfrac 1{2u^2} int_{1/u}^u dfrac 1vmathsf d v\ f_V(v) &=mathbf 1_{0<v< 1}dfrac 1{2v}int_{1/v}^inftydfrac1{u^2}mathsf du+mathbf 1_{1leq v}dfrac 1{2v}int_{v}^inftydfrac1{u^2}mathsf du end{align}$$
$endgroup$
– Graham Kemp
Feb 1 at 3:34
$begingroup$
Thanks again :)
$endgroup$
– APC89
Feb 1 at 4:17
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thank you very much! Could you please include the marginal density functions in your answer? I'd be greatly thankful for that.
$endgroup$
– APC89
Feb 1 at 2:17
1
$begingroup$
Just integrate $$begin{align}f_U(u) &= mathbf 1_{1leq u}dfrac 1{2u^2} int_{1/u}^u dfrac 1vmathsf d v\ f_V(v) &=mathbf 1_{0<v< 1}dfrac 1{2v}int_{1/v}^inftydfrac1{u^2}mathsf du+mathbf 1_{1leq v}dfrac 1{2v}int_{v}^inftydfrac1{u^2}mathsf du end{align}$$
$endgroup$
– Graham Kemp
Feb 1 at 3:34
$begingroup$
Thanks again :)
$endgroup$
– APC89
Feb 1 at 4:17
$begingroup$
Thank you very much! Could you please include the marginal density functions in your answer? I'd be greatly thankful for that.
$endgroup$
– APC89
Feb 1 at 2:17
$begingroup$
Thank you very much! Could you please include the marginal density functions in your answer? I'd be greatly thankful for that.
$endgroup$
– APC89
Feb 1 at 2:17
1
1
$begingroup$
Just integrate $$begin{align}f_U(u) &= mathbf 1_{1leq u}dfrac 1{2u^2} int_{1/u}^u dfrac 1vmathsf d v\ f_V(v) &=mathbf 1_{0<v< 1}dfrac 1{2v}int_{1/v}^inftydfrac1{u^2}mathsf du+mathbf 1_{1leq v}dfrac 1{2v}int_{v}^inftydfrac1{u^2}mathsf du end{align}$$
$endgroup$
– Graham Kemp
Feb 1 at 3:34
$begingroup$
Just integrate $$begin{align}f_U(u) &= mathbf 1_{1leq u}dfrac 1{2u^2} int_{1/u}^u dfrac 1vmathsf d v\ f_V(v) &=mathbf 1_{0<v< 1}dfrac 1{2v}int_{1/v}^inftydfrac1{u^2}mathsf du+mathbf 1_{1leq v}dfrac 1{2v}int_{v}^inftydfrac1{u^2}mathsf du end{align}$$
$endgroup$
– Graham Kemp
Feb 1 at 3:34
$begingroup$
Thanks again :)
$endgroup$
– APC89
Feb 1 at 4:17
$begingroup$
Thanks again :)
$endgroup$
– APC89
Feb 1 at 4:17
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The problem lies in that the domain
$$
left(x,yright)inleft[1,inftyright)^2
$$
and
$$
left(u,vright)inleft[1,inftyright)timesleft(0,inftyright)
$$
are not equivalent under your transformation. Instead, you may check that
$$
left{left(xy,x/yright):left(x,yright)inleft[1,inftyright)^2right}=left{yle xright}capleft{yge 1/xright}.
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The problem lies in that the domain
$$
left(x,yright)inleft[1,inftyright)^2
$$
and
$$
left(u,vright)inleft[1,inftyright)timesleft(0,inftyright)
$$
are not equivalent under your transformation. Instead, you may check that
$$
left{left(xy,x/yright):left(x,yright)inleft[1,inftyright)^2right}=left{yle xright}capleft{yge 1/xright}.
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The problem lies in that the domain
$$
left(x,yright)inleft[1,inftyright)^2
$$
and
$$
left(u,vright)inleft[1,inftyright)timesleft(0,inftyright)
$$
are not equivalent under your transformation. Instead, you may check that
$$
left{left(xy,x/yright):left(x,yright)inleft[1,inftyright)^2right}=left{yle xright}capleft{yge 1/xright}.
$$
$endgroup$
The problem lies in that the domain
$$
left(x,yright)inleft[1,inftyright)^2
$$
and
$$
left(u,vright)inleft[1,inftyright)timesleft(0,inftyright)
$$
are not equivalent under your transformation. Instead, you may check that
$$
left{left(xy,x/yright):left(x,yright)inleft[1,inftyright)^2right}=left{yle xright}capleft{yge 1/xright}.
$$
answered Feb 1 at 1:06
hypernovahypernova
4,979514
4,979514
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Part (a) does not include the support for the function, therefore how can you know where to integrate in part (b).
$endgroup$
– Graham Kemp
Feb 1 at 0:53
$begingroup$
Perhaps I have misunderstood your question, but I have pointed out that $(u,v)in[1,+infty)times(0,+infty)$. Is this it you were talking about?
$endgroup$
– APC89
Feb 1 at 0:55
$begingroup$
That's not the support. As hypermova notes, you have to be very careful with the transformation.
$endgroup$
– Graham Kemp
Feb 1 at 1:12