Does the set of Continuous functions always separate points and vanish nowhere?












2












$begingroup$


Let $X$ be an arbitrary metric space. Does $C(X;mathbb{R})$ always separate points and vanish nowhere?



I think this is true because the functions $f(x) = x$ and $g(x) = 1$ are both in $C(X;mathbb{R})$ and separate points and does not vanish.



Thank you for the help.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $f(x)=x$ is not an element of $C(X;mathbb R)$ for a general metric space $X$.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Feb 1 at 6:04












  • $begingroup$
    @KaviRamaMurthy Yes, I now understand this. Thank you.
    $endgroup$
    – Matthieu
    Feb 1 at 6:16
















2












$begingroup$


Let $X$ be an arbitrary metric space. Does $C(X;mathbb{R})$ always separate points and vanish nowhere?



I think this is true because the functions $f(x) = x$ and $g(x) = 1$ are both in $C(X;mathbb{R})$ and separate points and does not vanish.



Thank you for the help.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $f(x)=x$ is not an element of $C(X;mathbb R)$ for a general metric space $X$.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Feb 1 at 6:04












  • $begingroup$
    @KaviRamaMurthy Yes, I now understand this. Thank you.
    $endgroup$
    – Matthieu
    Feb 1 at 6:16














2












2








2





$begingroup$


Let $X$ be an arbitrary metric space. Does $C(X;mathbb{R})$ always separate points and vanish nowhere?



I think this is true because the functions $f(x) = x$ and $g(x) = 1$ are both in $C(X;mathbb{R})$ and separate points and does not vanish.



Thank you for the help.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $X$ be an arbitrary metric space. Does $C(X;mathbb{R})$ always separate points and vanish nowhere?



I think this is true because the functions $f(x) = x$ and $g(x) = 1$ are both in $C(X;mathbb{R})$ and separate points and does not vanish.



Thank you for the help.







metric-spaces






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Feb 1 at 13:30









David C. Ullrich

61.7k44095




61.7k44095










asked Feb 1 at 5:19









MatthieuMatthieu

1007




1007








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $f(x)=x$ is not an element of $C(X;mathbb R)$ for a general metric space $X$.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Feb 1 at 6:04












  • $begingroup$
    @KaviRamaMurthy Yes, I now understand this. Thank you.
    $endgroup$
    – Matthieu
    Feb 1 at 6:16














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $f(x)=x$ is not an element of $C(X;mathbb R)$ for a general metric space $X$.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Feb 1 at 6:04












  • $begingroup$
    @KaviRamaMurthy Yes, I now understand this. Thank you.
    $endgroup$
    – Matthieu
    Feb 1 at 6:16








1




1




$begingroup$
$f(x)=x$ is not an element of $C(X;mathbb R)$ for a general metric space $X$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Feb 1 at 6:04






$begingroup$
$f(x)=x$ is not an element of $C(X;mathbb R)$ for a general metric space $X$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Feb 1 at 6:04














$begingroup$
@KaviRamaMurthy Yes, I now understand this. Thank you.
$endgroup$
– Matthieu
Feb 1 at 6:16




$begingroup$
@KaviRamaMurthy Yes, I now understand this. Thank you.
$endgroup$
– Matthieu
Feb 1 at 6:16










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

Yes, these two functions do suffice to show that for $Xsubseteq mathbb{R}$. Or use $f$ and $g(x)=x+1$, as $f$ and $g$ never simultaneously are $0$. But the definition of $f$ assumes all points of $X$ are reals.



For general metric $X$ consider using $f_p(x) = d(x,p)$ for $p in X$ as continuous functions, and also $g$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    would you mind elaborating on your last statement for a general metric?
    $endgroup$
    – Matthieu
    Feb 1 at 5:33










  • $begingroup$
    @MatteoLepur If $x neq y$, what are $f_x(x)$ and $f_x(y)$?
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    Feb 1 at 5:34












  • $begingroup$
    $f_x(x) = 0$ and $f_x(y)$ $not=$ $0$. I don't see how this helps us. Thanks for the help.
    $endgroup$
    – Matthieu
    Feb 1 at 5:38












  • $begingroup$
    @hennobrandsma you're saying since there are at least two different points in the metric space then $ f_p(x)= d(x,y) $ is not equal to zero for some x in X, do I understand that correctly?
    $endgroup$
    – Kaan Yolsever
    Feb 1 at 5:39






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @KaanYolsever search for “metric continuous” on this site. Plenty of answers. But basically the triangle inequality implies $|f_p(x) - f_p(y) le d(x,y)$ which implies continuity right away.
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    Feb 1 at 6:04












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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









3












$begingroup$

Yes, these two functions do suffice to show that for $Xsubseteq mathbb{R}$. Or use $f$ and $g(x)=x+1$, as $f$ and $g$ never simultaneously are $0$. But the definition of $f$ assumes all points of $X$ are reals.



For general metric $X$ consider using $f_p(x) = d(x,p)$ for $p in X$ as continuous functions, and also $g$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    would you mind elaborating on your last statement for a general metric?
    $endgroup$
    – Matthieu
    Feb 1 at 5:33










  • $begingroup$
    @MatteoLepur If $x neq y$, what are $f_x(x)$ and $f_x(y)$?
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    Feb 1 at 5:34












  • $begingroup$
    $f_x(x) = 0$ and $f_x(y)$ $not=$ $0$. I don't see how this helps us. Thanks for the help.
    $endgroup$
    – Matthieu
    Feb 1 at 5:38












  • $begingroup$
    @hennobrandsma you're saying since there are at least two different points in the metric space then $ f_p(x)= d(x,y) $ is not equal to zero for some x in X, do I understand that correctly?
    $endgroup$
    – Kaan Yolsever
    Feb 1 at 5:39






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @KaanYolsever search for “metric continuous” on this site. Plenty of answers. But basically the triangle inequality implies $|f_p(x) - f_p(y) le d(x,y)$ which implies continuity right away.
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    Feb 1 at 6:04
















3












$begingroup$

Yes, these two functions do suffice to show that for $Xsubseteq mathbb{R}$. Or use $f$ and $g(x)=x+1$, as $f$ and $g$ never simultaneously are $0$. But the definition of $f$ assumes all points of $X$ are reals.



For general metric $X$ consider using $f_p(x) = d(x,p)$ for $p in X$ as continuous functions, and also $g$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    would you mind elaborating on your last statement for a general metric?
    $endgroup$
    – Matthieu
    Feb 1 at 5:33










  • $begingroup$
    @MatteoLepur If $x neq y$, what are $f_x(x)$ and $f_x(y)$?
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    Feb 1 at 5:34












  • $begingroup$
    $f_x(x) = 0$ and $f_x(y)$ $not=$ $0$. I don't see how this helps us. Thanks for the help.
    $endgroup$
    – Matthieu
    Feb 1 at 5:38












  • $begingroup$
    @hennobrandsma you're saying since there are at least two different points in the metric space then $ f_p(x)= d(x,y) $ is not equal to zero for some x in X, do I understand that correctly?
    $endgroup$
    – Kaan Yolsever
    Feb 1 at 5:39






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @KaanYolsever search for “metric continuous” on this site. Plenty of answers. But basically the triangle inequality implies $|f_p(x) - f_p(y) le d(x,y)$ which implies continuity right away.
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    Feb 1 at 6:04














3












3








3





$begingroup$

Yes, these two functions do suffice to show that for $Xsubseteq mathbb{R}$. Or use $f$ and $g(x)=x+1$, as $f$ and $g$ never simultaneously are $0$. But the definition of $f$ assumes all points of $X$ are reals.



For general metric $X$ consider using $f_p(x) = d(x,p)$ for $p in X$ as continuous functions, and also $g$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



Yes, these two functions do suffice to show that for $Xsubseteq mathbb{R}$. Or use $f$ and $g(x)=x+1$, as $f$ and $g$ never simultaneously are $0$. But the definition of $f$ assumes all points of $X$ are reals.



For general metric $X$ consider using $f_p(x) = d(x,p)$ for $p in X$ as continuous functions, and also $g$.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Feb 1 at 9:01

























answered Feb 1 at 5:30









Henno BrandsmaHenno Brandsma

116k349127




116k349127












  • $begingroup$
    would you mind elaborating on your last statement for a general metric?
    $endgroup$
    – Matthieu
    Feb 1 at 5:33










  • $begingroup$
    @MatteoLepur If $x neq y$, what are $f_x(x)$ and $f_x(y)$?
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    Feb 1 at 5:34












  • $begingroup$
    $f_x(x) = 0$ and $f_x(y)$ $not=$ $0$. I don't see how this helps us. Thanks for the help.
    $endgroup$
    – Matthieu
    Feb 1 at 5:38












  • $begingroup$
    @hennobrandsma you're saying since there are at least two different points in the metric space then $ f_p(x)= d(x,y) $ is not equal to zero for some x in X, do I understand that correctly?
    $endgroup$
    – Kaan Yolsever
    Feb 1 at 5:39






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @KaanYolsever search for “metric continuous” on this site. Plenty of answers. But basically the triangle inequality implies $|f_p(x) - f_p(y) le d(x,y)$ which implies continuity right away.
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    Feb 1 at 6:04


















  • $begingroup$
    would you mind elaborating on your last statement for a general metric?
    $endgroup$
    – Matthieu
    Feb 1 at 5:33










  • $begingroup$
    @MatteoLepur If $x neq y$, what are $f_x(x)$ and $f_x(y)$?
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    Feb 1 at 5:34












  • $begingroup$
    $f_x(x) = 0$ and $f_x(y)$ $not=$ $0$. I don't see how this helps us. Thanks for the help.
    $endgroup$
    – Matthieu
    Feb 1 at 5:38












  • $begingroup$
    @hennobrandsma you're saying since there are at least two different points in the metric space then $ f_p(x)= d(x,y) $ is not equal to zero for some x in X, do I understand that correctly?
    $endgroup$
    – Kaan Yolsever
    Feb 1 at 5:39






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @KaanYolsever search for “metric continuous” on this site. Plenty of answers. But basically the triangle inequality implies $|f_p(x) - f_p(y) le d(x,y)$ which implies continuity right away.
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    Feb 1 at 6:04
















$begingroup$
would you mind elaborating on your last statement for a general metric?
$endgroup$
– Matthieu
Feb 1 at 5:33




$begingroup$
would you mind elaborating on your last statement for a general metric?
$endgroup$
– Matthieu
Feb 1 at 5:33












$begingroup$
@MatteoLepur If $x neq y$, what are $f_x(x)$ and $f_x(y)$?
$endgroup$
– Henno Brandsma
Feb 1 at 5:34






$begingroup$
@MatteoLepur If $x neq y$, what are $f_x(x)$ and $f_x(y)$?
$endgroup$
– Henno Brandsma
Feb 1 at 5:34














$begingroup$
$f_x(x) = 0$ and $f_x(y)$ $not=$ $0$. I don't see how this helps us. Thanks for the help.
$endgroup$
– Matthieu
Feb 1 at 5:38






$begingroup$
$f_x(x) = 0$ and $f_x(y)$ $not=$ $0$. I don't see how this helps us. Thanks for the help.
$endgroup$
– Matthieu
Feb 1 at 5:38














$begingroup$
@hennobrandsma you're saying since there are at least two different points in the metric space then $ f_p(x)= d(x,y) $ is not equal to zero for some x in X, do I understand that correctly?
$endgroup$
– Kaan Yolsever
Feb 1 at 5:39




$begingroup$
@hennobrandsma you're saying since there are at least two different points in the metric space then $ f_p(x)= d(x,y) $ is not equal to zero for some x in X, do I understand that correctly?
$endgroup$
– Kaan Yolsever
Feb 1 at 5:39




2




2




$begingroup$
@KaanYolsever search for “metric continuous” on this site. Plenty of answers. But basically the triangle inequality implies $|f_p(x) - f_p(y) le d(x,y)$ which implies continuity right away.
$endgroup$
– Henno Brandsma
Feb 1 at 6:04




$begingroup$
@KaanYolsever search for “metric continuous” on this site. Plenty of answers. But basically the triangle inequality implies $|f_p(x) - f_p(y) le d(x,y)$ which implies continuity right away.
$endgroup$
– Henno Brandsma
Feb 1 at 6:04


















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