Can a function map a single X value to multiple Y values?
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If I have the domain X: A, B, C, and the domain Y: 1, 2, 3, 4 is it possible to have every value of Y correspond to a value in C?
For exampleC could f(x) = 1, and at the same time f(x) = 2? Is it possible for f(A) to correspond to 1 and 2?
Thanks
functions
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
If I have the domain X: A, B, C, and the domain Y: 1, 2, 3, 4 is it possible to have every value of Y correspond to a value in C?
For exampleC could f(x) = 1, and at the same time f(x) = 2? Is it possible for f(A) to correspond to 1 and 2?
Thanks
functions
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3
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For a function, no, but for a relation, yes.
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– Andrew D. Hwang
Aug 9 '17 at 11:33
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If I have the domain X: A, B, C, and the domain Y: 1, 2, 3, 4 is it possible to have every value of Y correspond to a value in C?
For exampleC could f(x) = 1, and at the same time f(x) = 2? Is it possible for f(A) to correspond to 1 and 2?
Thanks
functions
$endgroup$
If I have the domain X: A, B, C, and the domain Y: 1, 2, 3, 4 is it possible to have every value of Y correspond to a value in C?
For exampleC could f(x) = 1, and at the same time f(x) = 2? Is it possible for f(A) to correspond to 1 and 2?
Thanks
functions
functions
asked Aug 9 '17 at 11:28
JmJJmJ
1033
1033
3
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For a function, no, but for a relation, yes.
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– Andrew D. Hwang
Aug 9 '17 at 11:33
add a comment |
3
$begingroup$
For a function, no, but for a relation, yes.
$endgroup$
– Andrew D. Hwang
Aug 9 '17 at 11:33
3
3
$begingroup$
For a function, no, but for a relation, yes.
$endgroup$
– Andrew D. Hwang
Aug 9 '17 at 11:33
$begingroup$
For a function, no, but for a relation, yes.
$endgroup$
– Andrew D. Hwang
Aug 9 '17 at 11:33
add a comment |
2 Answers
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Can a function map a single X value to multiple Y values?
By definition, no. A function maps every X value in the valid domain to only a single Y value.
"In mathematics, a function is a relation between a set of inputs and a set of permissible outputs with the property that each input is related to exactly one output".
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In mathematics, the definition of a function requires that any single input may only have one output.
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
Can a function map a single X value to multiple Y values?
By definition, no. A function maps every X value in the valid domain to only a single Y value.
"In mathematics, a function is a relation between a set of inputs and a set of permissible outputs with the property that each input is related to exactly one output".
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Can a function map a single X value to multiple Y values?
By definition, no. A function maps every X value in the valid domain to only a single Y value.
"In mathematics, a function is a relation between a set of inputs and a set of permissible outputs with the property that each input is related to exactly one output".
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Can a function map a single X value to multiple Y values?
By definition, no. A function maps every X value in the valid domain to only a single Y value.
"In mathematics, a function is a relation between a set of inputs and a set of permissible outputs with the property that each input is related to exactly one output".
$endgroup$
Can a function map a single X value to multiple Y values?
By definition, no. A function maps every X value in the valid domain to only a single Y value.
"In mathematics, a function is a relation between a set of inputs and a set of permissible outputs with the property that each input is related to exactly one output".
answered Aug 9 '17 at 11:33
LloydTaoLloydTao
32114
32114
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$begingroup$
In mathematics, the definition of a function requires that any single input may only have one output.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In mathematics, the definition of a function requires that any single input may only have one output.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In mathematics, the definition of a function requires that any single input may only have one output.
$endgroup$
In mathematics, the definition of a function requires that any single input may only have one output.
edited Aug 9 '17 at 11:37
answered Aug 9 '17 at 11:31
DWDDWD
503213
503213
add a comment |
add a comment |
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3
$begingroup$
For a function, no, but for a relation, yes.
$endgroup$
– Andrew D. Hwang
Aug 9 '17 at 11:33