There are no bounded linear functional on $L^p(mathbb{R})$ if $0<p<1.$












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Consider $L^p(mathbb{R})$ where $0<p<1$.



Why there are no bounded linear functional on $L^p(mathbb{R})$?
i.e.
If $l$ is linear functional $l:L^p(mathbb{R})to mathbb{C}$ such that $|l(f)|leq M|f|_{p}$ for all $f$ and some $M>0$, then $l=0$.
Why?
Hint: Let $F(x)=l(mathcal{X}_{[0,x]})$, and consider $F(x)-F(y)$










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    Consider $L^p(mathbb{R})$ where $0<p<1$.



    Why there are no bounded linear functional on $L^p(mathbb{R})$?
    i.e.
    If $l$ is linear functional $l:L^p(mathbb{R})to mathbb{C}$ such that $|l(f)|leq M|f|_{p}$ for all $f$ and some $M>0$, then $l=0$.
    Why?
    Hint: Let $F(x)=l(mathcal{X}_{[0,x]})$, and consider $F(x)-F(y)$










    share|cite|improve this question



























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      0







      Consider $L^p(mathbb{R})$ where $0<p<1$.



      Why there are no bounded linear functional on $L^p(mathbb{R})$?
      i.e.
      If $l$ is linear functional $l:L^p(mathbb{R})to mathbb{C}$ such that $|l(f)|leq M|f|_{p}$ for all $f$ and some $M>0$, then $l=0$.
      Why?
      Hint: Let $F(x)=l(mathcal{X}_{[0,x]})$, and consider $F(x)-F(y)$










      share|cite|improve this question















      Consider $L^p(mathbb{R})$ where $0<p<1$.



      Why there are no bounded linear functional on $L^p(mathbb{R})$?
      i.e.
      If $l$ is linear functional $l:L^p(mathbb{R})to mathbb{C}$ such that $|l(f)|leq M|f|_{p}$ for all $f$ and some $M>0$, then $l=0$.
      Why?
      Hint: Let $F(x)=l(mathcal{X}_{[0,x]})$, and consider $F(x)-F(y)$







      functional-analysis measure-theory lp-spaces






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      edited Nov 21 '18 at 6:25

























      asked Nov 21 '18 at 5:24









      eraldcoil

      363111




      363111






















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          This question surely was already answered here. In the case $0 <p <1$ the usual definition of the $L^p$-norm is not a norm, because the $Delta$-inequality isn't satisfied. If $0< p <1$ the space $L^p(mathbb{R})$ is only a metric space with invariant metric given by
          $$|f|_p := int |f|^p d lambda.$$
          If $l$ is a continuous functional, we know that $|l(f)| < 1$ for $f in B_delta(0)$ and some $delta >0$. By rescaling and using linearity, we see that $$|l(f)| le M |f|_p^{1/p}$$
          with $M= delta^{-1}$. Now decompose $[a,b]$ in $n$ disjoint intervals $I_1,ldots,I_n$ with lenght $(b-a)/n$. Then we have
          $$|l(1_{[a,b]})| le sum_{k=1}^n |l(1_{I_i})| le nM |l(1_{I_i})|_p = (b-a)^{1/p} n^{1-1/p}.$$
          Since $0<p<1$, we see that $1-1/p$ is negative. Thus, letting $n rightarrow infty$, we get $l(1_{[a,b]}) =0$. Since all linear combinations of such intervals are dense in $L^p$ (also for $0<p<1$), we see that $l$ is trivial.






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            1 Answer
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            1 Answer
            1






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            active

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            0














            This question surely was already answered here. In the case $0 <p <1$ the usual definition of the $L^p$-norm is not a norm, because the $Delta$-inequality isn't satisfied. If $0< p <1$ the space $L^p(mathbb{R})$ is only a metric space with invariant metric given by
            $$|f|_p := int |f|^p d lambda.$$
            If $l$ is a continuous functional, we know that $|l(f)| < 1$ for $f in B_delta(0)$ and some $delta >0$. By rescaling and using linearity, we see that $$|l(f)| le M |f|_p^{1/p}$$
            with $M= delta^{-1}$. Now decompose $[a,b]$ in $n$ disjoint intervals $I_1,ldots,I_n$ with lenght $(b-a)/n$. Then we have
            $$|l(1_{[a,b]})| le sum_{k=1}^n |l(1_{I_i})| le nM |l(1_{I_i})|_p = (b-a)^{1/p} n^{1-1/p}.$$
            Since $0<p<1$, we see that $1-1/p$ is negative. Thus, letting $n rightarrow infty$, we get $l(1_{[a,b]}) =0$. Since all linear combinations of such intervals are dense in $L^p$ (also for $0<p<1$), we see that $l$ is trivial.






            share|cite|improve this answer


























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              This question surely was already answered here. In the case $0 <p <1$ the usual definition of the $L^p$-norm is not a norm, because the $Delta$-inequality isn't satisfied. If $0< p <1$ the space $L^p(mathbb{R})$ is only a metric space with invariant metric given by
              $$|f|_p := int |f|^p d lambda.$$
              If $l$ is a continuous functional, we know that $|l(f)| < 1$ for $f in B_delta(0)$ and some $delta >0$. By rescaling and using linearity, we see that $$|l(f)| le M |f|_p^{1/p}$$
              with $M= delta^{-1}$. Now decompose $[a,b]$ in $n$ disjoint intervals $I_1,ldots,I_n$ with lenght $(b-a)/n$. Then we have
              $$|l(1_{[a,b]})| le sum_{k=1}^n |l(1_{I_i})| le nM |l(1_{I_i})|_p = (b-a)^{1/p} n^{1-1/p}.$$
              Since $0<p<1$, we see that $1-1/p$ is negative. Thus, letting $n rightarrow infty$, we get $l(1_{[a,b]}) =0$. Since all linear combinations of such intervals are dense in $L^p$ (also for $0<p<1$), we see that $l$ is trivial.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                0












                0








                0






                This question surely was already answered here. In the case $0 <p <1$ the usual definition of the $L^p$-norm is not a norm, because the $Delta$-inequality isn't satisfied. If $0< p <1$ the space $L^p(mathbb{R})$ is only a metric space with invariant metric given by
                $$|f|_p := int |f|^p d lambda.$$
                If $l$ is a continuous functional, we know that $|l(f)| < 1$ for $f in B_delta(0)$ and some $delta >0$. By rescaling and using linearity, we see that $$|l(f)| le M |f|_p^{1/p}$$
                with $M= delta^{-1}$. Now decompose $[a,b]$ in $n$ disjoint intervals $I_1,ldots,I_n$ with lenght $(b-a)/n$. Then we have
                $$|l(1_{[a,b]})| le sum_{k=1}^n |l(1_{I_i})| le nM |l(1_{I_i})|_p = (b-a)^{1/p} n^{1-1/p}.$$
                Since $0<p<1$, we see that $1-1/p$ is negative. Thus, letting $n rightarrow infty$, we get $l(1_{[a,b]}) =0$. Since all linear combinations of such intervals are dense in $L^p$ (also for $0<p<1$), we see that $l$ is trivial.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                This question surely was already answered here. In the case $0 <p <1$ the usual definition of the $L^p$-norm is not a norm, because the $Delta$-inequality isn't satisfied. If $0< p <1$ the space $L^p(mathbb{R})$ is only a metric space with invariant metric given by
                $$|f|_p := int |f|^p d lambda.$$
                If $l$ is a continuous functional, we know that $|l(f)| < 1$ for $f in B_delta(0)$ and some $delta >0$. By rescaling and using linearity, we see that $$|l(f)| le M |f|_p^{1/p}$$
                with $M= delta^{-1}$. Now decompose $[a,b]$ in $n$ disjoint intervals $I_1,ldots,I_n$ with lenght $(b-a)/n$. Then we have
                $$|l(1_{[a,b]})| le sum_{k=1}^n |l(1_{I_i})| le nM |l(1_{I_i})|_p = (b-a)^{1/p} n^{1-1/p}.$$
                Since $0<p<1$, we see that $1-1/p$ is negative. Thus, letting $n rightarrow infty$, we get $l(1_{[a,b]}) =0$. Since all linear combinations of such intervals are dense in $L^p$ (also for $0<p<1$), we see that $l$ is trivial.







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                answered Nov 22 '18 at 15:47









                p4sch

                4,770217




                4,770217






























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