Finding functions $f: Bbb R_*^+ to Bbb R_*^+$ with certain properties












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Find the functions $f:Bbb R_*^+ to Bbb R_*^+$ such that:



$$f(x)f left(frac{1}{x}right)=1$$










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  • $begingroup$
    What is $R_ast^+$?
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Oct 24 '12 at 15:05










  • $begingroup$
    I presume it's better known, and less ambiguously written, as $Bbb R_{> 0}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord_Farin
    Oct 24 '12 at 15:06










  • $begingroup$
    Am I missing something? $f(x) = x$.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Oct 24 '12 at 15:07










  • $begingroup$
    Where's your proof that no other $f$ does the job?
    $endgroup$
    – Lord_Farin
    Oct 24 '12 at 15:08










  • $begingroup$
    None. $f(x) = 1$ also works. As does $f(x) = frac{1}{x}$. I guess the question is to characterize all such functions...
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Oct 24 '12 at 15:08


















1












$begingroup$


Find the functions $f:Bbb R_*^+ to Bbb R_*^+$ such that:



$$f(x)f left(frac{1}{x}right)=1$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    What is $R_ast^+$?
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Oct 24 '12 at 15:05










  • $begingroup$
    I presume it's better known, and less ambiguously written, as $Bbb R_{> 0}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord_Farin
    Oct 24 '12 at 15:06










  • $begingroup$
    Am I missing something? $f(x) = x$.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Oct 24 '12 at 15:07










  • $begingroup$
    Where's your proof that no other $f$ does the job?
    $endgroup$
    – Lord_Farin
    Oct 24 '12 at 15:08










  • $begingroup$
    None. $f(x) = 1$ also works. As does $f(x) = frac{1}{x}$. I guess the question is to characterize all such functions...
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Oct 24 '12 at 15:08
















1












1








1


1



$begingroup$


Find the functions $f:Bbb R_*^+ to Bbb R_*^+$ such that:



$$f(x)f left(frac{1}{x}right)=1$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Find the functions $f:Bbb R_*^+ to Bbb R_*^+$ such that:



$$f(x)f left(frac{1}{x}right)=1$$







functions functional-equations






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Oct 24 '12 at 15:35









Martin Sleziak

44.8k10118272




44.8k10118272










asked Oct 24 '12 at 15:02









LevanDokiteLevanDokite

789




789












  • $begingroup$
    What is $R_ast^+$?
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Oct 24 '12 at 15:05










  • $begingroup$
    I presume it's better known, and less ambiguously written, as $Bbb R_{> 0}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord_Farin
    Oct 24 '12 at 15:06










  • $begingroup$
    Am I missing something? $f(x) = x$.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Oct 24 '12 at 15:07










  • $begingroup$
    Where's your proof that no other $f$ does the job?
    $endgroup$
    – Lord_Farin
    Oct 24 '12 at 15:08










  • $begingroup$
    None. $f(x) = 1$ also works. As does $f(x) = frac{1}{x}$. I guess the question is to characterize all such functions...
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Oct 24 '12 at 15:08




















  • $begingroup$
    What is $R_ast^+$?
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Oct 24 '12 at 15:05










  • $begingroup$
    I presume it's better known, and less ambiguously written, as $Bbb R_{> 0}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord_Farin
    Oct 24 '12 at 15:06










  • $begingroup$
    Am I missing something? $f(x) = x$.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Oct 24 '12 at 15:07










  • $begingroup$
    Where's your proof that no other $f$ does the job?
    $endgroup$
    – Lord_Farin
    Oct 24 '12 at 15:08










  • $begingroup$
    None. $f(x) = 1$ also works. As does $f(x) = frac{1}{x}$. I guess the question is to characterize all such functions...
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Oct 24 '12 at 15:08


















$begingroup$
What is $R_ast^+$?
$endgroup$
– Asaf Karagila
Oct 24 '12 at 15:05




$begingroup$
What is $R_ast^+$?
$endgroup$
– Asaf Karagila
Oct 24 '12 at 15:05












$begingroup$
I presume it's better known, and less ambiguously written, as $Bbb R_{> 0}$.
$endgroup$
– Lord_Farin
Oct 24 '12 at 15:06




$begingroup$
I presume it's better known, and less ambiguously written, as $Bbb R_{> 0}$.
$endgroup$
– Lord_Farin
Oct 24 '12 at 15:06












$begingroup$
Am I missing something? $f(x) = x$.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Oct 24 '12 at 15:07




$begingroup$
Am I missing something? $f(x) = x$.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Oct 24 '12 at 15:07












$begingroup$
Where's your proof that no other $f$ does the job?
$endgroup$
– Lord_Farin
Oct 24 '12 at 15:08




$begingroup$
Where's your proof that no other $f$ does the job?
$endgroup$
– Lord_Farin
Oct 24 '12 at 15:08












$begingroup$
None. $f(x) = 1$ also works. As does $f(x) = frac{1}{x}$. I guess the question is to characterize all such functions...
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Oct 24 '12 at 15:08






$begingroup$
None. $f(x) = 1$ also works. As does $f(x) = frac{1}{x}$. I guess the question is to characterize all such functions...
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Oct 24 '12 at 15:08












2 Answers
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In fact this functional equation belongs to the form of http://eqworld.ipmnet.ru/en/solutions/fe/fe2111.pdf.



The general solution is $f(x)=pm e^{Cleft(x,frac{1}{x}right)}$ , where $C(u,v)$ is any antisymmetric function.






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    5












    $begingroup$

    For any function $tilde{f}:[1,infty)rightarrow mathbb{R}_+^*$ such that $f(1)=1$, there is a unique extension $f:(0,infty)rightarrow mathbb{R}_+^*$ defined for $x<1$ by $f(x)=1/tilde{f}(1/x)$.






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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      1












      $begingroup$

      In fact this functional equation belongs to the form of http://eqworld.ipmnet.ru/en/solutions/fe/fe2111.pdf.



      The general solution is $f(x)=pm e^{Cleft(x,frac{1}{x}right)}$ , where $C(u,v)$ is any antisymmetric function.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        1












        $begingroup$

        In fact this functional equation belongs to the form of http://eqworld.ipmnet.ru/en/solutions/fe/fe2111.pdf.



        The general solution is $f(x)=pm e^{Cleft(x,frac{1}{x}right)}$ , where $C(u,v)$ is any antisymmetric function.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          In fact this functional equation belongs to the form of http://eqworld.ipmnet.ru/en/solutions/fe/fe2111.pdf.



          The general solution is $f(x)=pm e^{Cleft(x,frac{1}{x}right)}$ , where $C(u,v)$ is any antisymmetric function.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          In fact this functional equation belongs to the form of http://eqworld.ipmnet.ru/en/solutions/fe/fe2111.pdf.



          The general solution is $f(x)=pm e^{Cleft(x,frac{1}{x}right)}$ , where $C(u,v)$ is any antisymmetric function.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Oct 26 '12 at 8:10









          doraemonpauldoraemonpaul

          12.6k31660




          12.6k31660























              5












              $begingroup$

              For any function $tilde{f}:[1,infty)rightarrow mathbb{R}_+^*$ such that $f(1)=1$, there is a unique extension $f:(0,infty)rightarrow mathbb{R}_+^*$ defined for $x<1$ by $f(x)=1/tilde{f}(1/x)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                5












                $begingroup$

                For any function $tilde{f}:[1,infty)rightarrow mathbb{R}_+^*$ such that $f(1)=1$, there is a unique extension $f:(0,infty)rightarrow mathbb{R}_+^*$ defined for $x<1$ by $f(x)=1/tilde{f}(1/x)$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  5












                  5








                  5





                  $begingroup$

                  For any function $tilde{f}:[1,infty)rightarrow mathbb{R}_+^*$ such that $f(1)=1$, there is a unique extension $f:(0,infty)rightarrow mathbb{R}_+^*$ defined for $x<1$ by $f(x)=1/tilde{f}(1/x)$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  For any function $tilde{f}:[1,infty)rightarrow mathbb{R}_+^*$ such that $f(1)=1$, there is a unique extension $f:(0,infty)rightarrow mathbb{R}_+^*$ defined for $x<1$ by $f(x)=1/tilde{f}(1/x)$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Oct 24 '12 at 15:21









                  Kevin VentulloKevin Ventullo

                  2,15411422




                  2,15411422






























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