Functional Equation simple problem












2












$begingroup$


How do I show that if there are functions $f,g$ such that$$
f(g(x)+g(y))=bx+cy
$$
holds for all $b,cinmathbb{R}$, then we necessarily have $b=c$? Is this even true? It seems so, but I'm just not sure how to explain it in detail and using theory from functional equations. Any ideas?



Extra: In addition, I'd like to prove that there are no pair of functions $f,g$ such that$$
y^2+z^2=f(x,g(y-x)+g(z-x)).
$$

Any ideas on how to prove this? Plus, does anyone know some literature regarding this type of problems?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    2












    $begingroup$


    How do I show that if there are functions $f,g$ such that$$
    f(g(x)+g(y))=bx+cy
    $$
    holds for all $b,cinmathbb{R}$, then we necessarily have $b=c$? Is this even true? It seems so, but I'm just not sure how to explain it in detail and using theory from functional equations. Any ideas?



    Extra: In addition, I'd like to prove that there are no pair of functions $f,g$ such that$$
    y^2+z^2=f(x,g(y-x)+g(z-x)).
    $$

    Any ideas on how to prove this? Plus, does anyone know some literature regarding this type of problems?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2


      1



      $begingroup$


      How do I show that if there are functions $f,g$ such that$$
      f(g(x)+g(y))=bx+cy
      $$
      holds for all $b,cinmathbb{R}$, then we necessarily have $b=c$? Is this even true? It seems so, but I'm just not sure how to explain it in detail and using theory from functional equations. Any ideas?



      Extra: In addition, I'd like to prove that there are no pair of functions $f,g$ such that$$
      y^2+z^2=f(x,g(y-x)+g(z-x)).
      $$

      Any ideas on how to prove this? Plus, does anyone know some literature regarding this type of problems?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      How do I show that if there are functions $f,g$ such that$$
      f(g(x)+g(y))=bx+cy
      $$
      holds for all $b,cinmathbb{R}$, then we necessarily have $b=c$? Is this even true? It seems so, but I'm just not sure how to explain it in detail and using theory from functional equations. Any ideas?



      Extra: In addition, I'd like to prove that there are no pair of functions $f,g$ such that$$
      y^2+z^2=f(x,g(y-x)+g(z-x)).
      $$

      Any ideas on how to prove this? Plus, does anyone know some literature regarding this type of problems?







      functions functional-equations






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jan 10 at 15:24







      sam wolfe

















      asked Jan 10 at 12:57









      sam wolfesam wolfe

      1,008525




      1,008525






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          5












          $begingroup$

          For every pair $(x,y)$, $bx+cy=f(g(x)+g(y))=f(g(y)+g(x))=by+cx$.



          Thus $b(y-x)=c(y-x)$. Take $x=0,y=1$.



          Edit: for the second question, the answer is, in general, no. Take $g$ to be a bijection from $mathbb{R}$ into a $mathbb{Q}$-basis of $mathbb{R}$, which we denote as $mathcal{B}=(g(x))_x$.



          Note that $g(a)+g(b)$ determines the unordered pair $(a,b)$ (because the $g(x)$ are all linearly independent over the rationals).



          Take now $f(x,y)=0$ if $y notin mathcal{B} + mathcal{B}$, and $f(x,y)=(a+x)^2+(b+x)^2$ otherwise where $y=g(a)+g(b)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you! I have added an extra question, which I can't find a way to prove, if you have any insights about it, let me know!
            $endgroup$
            – sam wolfe
            Jan 10 at 15:25










          • $begingroup$
            So $f$ is a two-variable function?
            $endgroup$
            – Mindlack
            Jan 10 at 16:35










          • $begingroup$
            In the extra case, yes.
            $endgroup$
            – sam wolfe
            Jan 10 at 16:47










          • $begingroup$
            With a proper change of variable, we want some universal function $g$ and a family $f_x$ of functions such that $f_x(g(y)+g(z))=(y+x)^2+(z+x)^2$, thus $g(y)+g(z)$ determines the unordered pair $(y,z)$. This seems a very strong property, so it could imply a contradiction.
            $endgroup$
            – Mindlack
            Jan 10 at 16:47






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            What I did prove is that there is no contradiction (at least if the axiom of choice is granted).
            $endgroup$
            – Mindlack
            Jan 17 at 7:35











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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          5












          $begingroup$

          For every pair $(x,y)$, $bx+cy=f(g(x)+g(y))=f(g(y)+g(x))=by+cx$.



          Thus $b(y-x)=c(y-x)$. Take $x=0,y=1$.



          Edit: for the second question, the answer is, in general, no. Take $g$ to be a bijection from $mathbb{R}$ into a $mathbb{Q}$-basis of $mathbb{R}$, which we denote as $mathcal{B}=(g(x))_x$.



          Note that $g(a)+g(b)$ determines the unordered pair $(a,b)$ (because the $g(x)$ are all linearly independent over the rationals).



          Take now $f(x,y)=0$ if $y notin mathcal{B} + mathcal{B}$, and $f(x,y)=(a+x)^2+(b+x)^2$ otherwise where $y=g(a)+g(b)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you! I have added an extra question, which I can't find a way to prove, if you have any insights about it, let me know!
            $endgroup$
            – sam wolfe
            Jan 10 at 15:25










          • $begingroup$
            So $f$ is a two-variable function?
            $endgroup$
            – Mindlack
            Jan 10 at 16:35










          • $begingroup$
            In the extra case, yes.
            $endgroup$
            – sam wolfe
            Jan 10 at 16:47










          • $begingroup$
            With a proper change of variable, we want some universal function $g$ and a family $f_x$ of functions such that $f_x(g(y)+g(z))=(y+x)^2+(z+x)^2$, thus $g(y)+g(z)$ determines the unordered pair $(y,z)$. This seems a very strong property, so it could imply a contradiction.
            $endgroup$
            – Mindlack
            Jan 10 at 16:47






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            What I did prove is that there is no contradiction (at least if the axiom of choice is granted).
            $endgroup$
            – Mindlack
            Jan 17 at 7:35
















          5












          $begingroup$

          For every pair $(x,y)$, $bx+cy=f(g(x)+g(y))=f(g(y)+g(x))=by+cx$.



          Thus $b(y-x)=c(y-x)$. Take $x=0,y=1$.



          Edit: for the second question, the answer is, in general, no. Take $g$ to be a bijection from $mathbb{R}$ into a $mathbb{Q}$-basis of $mathbb{R}$, which we denote as $mathcal{B}=(g(x))_x$.



          Note that $g(a)+g(b)$ determines the unordered pair $(a,b)$ (because the $g(x)$ are all linearly independent over the rationals).



          Take now $f(x,y)=0$ if $y notin mathcal{B} + mathcal{B}$, and $f(x,y)=(a+x)^2+(b+x)^2$ otherwise where $y=g(a)+g(b)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you! I have added an extra question, which I can't find a way to prove, if you have any insights about it, let me know!
            $endgroup$
            – sam wolfe
            Jan 10 at 15:25










          • $begingroup$
            So $f$ is a two-variable function?
            $endgroup$
            – Mindlack
            Jan 10 at 16:35










          • $begingroup$
            In the extra case, yes.
            $endgroup$
            – sam wolfe
            Jan 10 at 16:47










          • $begingroup$
            With a proper change of variable, we want some universal function $g$ and a family $f_x$ of functions such that $f_x(g(y)+g(z))=(y+x)^2+(z+x)^2$, thus $g(y)+g(z)$ determines the unordered pair $(y,z)$. This seems a very strong property, so it could imply a contradiction.
            $endgroup$
            – Mindlack
            Jan 10 at 16:47






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            What I did prove is that there is no contradiction (at least if the axiom of choice is granted).
            $endgroup$
            – Mindlack
            Jan 17 at 7:35














          5












          5








          5





          $begingroup$

          For every pair $(x,y)$, $bx+cy=f(g(x)+g(y))=f(g(y)+g(x))=by+cx$.



          Thus $b(y-x)=c(y-x)$. Take $x=0,y=1$.



          Edit: for the second question, the answer is, in general, no. Take $g$ to be a bijection from $mathbb{R}$ into a $mathbb{Q}$-basis of $mathbb{R}$, which we denote as $mathcal{B}=(g(x))_x$.



          Note that $g(a)+g(b)$ determines the unordered pair $(a,b)$ (because the $g(x)$ are all linearly independent over the rationals).



          Take now $f(x,y)=0$ if $y notin mathcal{B} + mathcal{B}$, and $f(x,y)=(a+x)^2+(b+x)^2$ otherwise where $y=g(a)+g(b)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          For every pair $(x,y)$, $bx+cy=f(g(x)+g(y))=f(g(y)+g(x))=by+cx$.



          Thus $b(y-x)=c(y-x)$. Take $x=0,y=1$.



          Edit: for the second question, the answer is, in general, no. Take $g$ to be a bijection from $mathbb{R}$ into a $mathbb{Q}$-basis of $mathbb{R}$, which we denote as $mathcal{B}=(g(x))_x$.



          Note that $g(a)+g(b)$ determines the unordered pair $(a,b)$ (because the $g(x)$ are all linearly independent over the rationals).



          Take now $f(x,y)=0$ if $y notin mathcal{B} + mathcal{B}$, and $f(x,y)=(a+x)^2+(b+x)^2$ otherwise where $y=g(a)+g(b)$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jan 10 at 17:08

























          answered Jan 10 at 13:00









          MindlackMindlack

          3,53717




          3,53717












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you! I have added an extra question, which I can't find a way to prove, if you have any insights about it, let me know!
            $endgroup$
            – sam wolfe
            Jan 10 at 15:25










          • $begingroup$
            So $f$ is a two-variable function?
            $endgroup$
            – Mindlack
            Jan 10 at 16:35










          • $begingroup$
            In the extra case, yes.
            $endgroup$
            – sam wolfe
            Jan 10 at 16:47










          • $begingroup$
            With a proper change of variable, we want some universal function $g$ and a family $f_x$ of functions such that $f_x(g(y)+g(z))=(y+x)^2+(z+x)^2$, thus $g(y)+g(z)$ determines the unordered pair $(y,z)$. This seems a very strong property, so it could imply a contradiction.
            $endgroup$
            – Mindlack
            Jan 10 at 16:47






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            What I did prove is that there is no contradiction (at least if the axiom of choice is granted).
            $endgroup$
            – Mindlack
            Jan 17 at 7:35


















          • $begingroup$
            Thank you! I have added an extra question, which I can't find a way to prove, if you have any insights about it, let me know!
            $endgroup$
            – sam wolfe
            Jan 10 at 15:25










          • $begingroup$
            So $f$ is a two-variable function?
            $endgroup$
            – Mindlack
            Jan 10 at 16:35










          • $begingroup$
            In the extra case, yes.
            $endgroup$
            – sam wolfe
            Jan 10 at 16:47










          • $begingroup$
            With a proper change of variable, we want some universal function $g$ and a family $f_x$ of functions such that $f_x(g(y)+g(z))=(y+x)^2+(z+x)^2$, thus $g(y)+g(z)$ determines the unordered pair $(y,z)$. This seems a very strong property, so it could imply a contradiction.
            $endgroup$
            – Mindlack
            Jan 10 at 16:47






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            What I did prove is that there is no contradiction (at least if the axiom of choice is granted).
            $endgroup$
            – Mindlack
            Jan 17 at 7:35
















          $begingroup$
          Thank you! I have added an extra question, which I can't find a way to prove, if you have any insights about it, let me know!
          $endgroup$
          – sam wolfe
          Jan 10 at 15:25




          $begingroup$
          Thank you! I have added an extra question, which I can't find a way to prove, if you have any insights about it, let me know!
          $endgroup$
          – sam wolfe
          Jan 10 at 15:25












          $begingroup$
          So $f$ is a two-variable function?
          $endgroup$
          – Mindlack
          Jan 10 at 16:35




          $begingroup$
          So $f$ is a two-variable function?
          $endgroup$
          – Mindlack
          Jan 10 at 16:35












          $begingroup$
          In the extra case, yes.
          $endgroup$
          – sam wolfe
          Jan 10 at 16:47




          $begingroup$
          In the extra case, yes.
          $endgroup$
          – sam wolfe
          Jan 10 at 16:47












          $begingroup$
          With a proper change of variable, we want some universal function $g$ and a family $f_x$ of functions such that $f_x(g(y)+g(z))=(y+x)^2+(z+x)^2$, thus $g(y)+g(z)$ determines the unordered pair $(y,z)$. This seems a very strong property, so it could imply a contradiction.
          $endgroup$
          – Mindlack
          Jan 10 at 16:47




          $begingroup$
          With a proper change of variable, we want some universal function $g$ and a family $f_x$ of functions such that $f_x(g(y)+g(z))=(y+x)^2+(z+x)^2$, thus $g(y)+g(z)$ determines the unordered pair $(y,z)$. This seems a very strong property, so it could imply a contradiction.
          $endgroup$
          – Mindlack
          Jan 10 at 16:47




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          What I did prove is that there is no contradiction (at least if the axiom of choice is granted).
          $endgroup$
          – Mindlack
          Jan 17 at 7:35




          $begingroup$
          What I did prove is that there is no contradiction (at least if the axiom of choice is granted).
          $endgroup$
          – Mindlack
          Jan 17 at 7:35


















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