Help with a bit more rigorous proof of the chain rule.












1












$begingroup$


We need to show that $D_x(fcirc g)(a)=D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)$



$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=(lim_{yto g(a)} frac{f(y)-f(g(a))}{y-g(a)}) (lim_{xto a} frac{g(x)-(g(a)}{x-a}) $



Substituting $y=g(x)$



$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=(lim_{g(x)to g(a)} frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)}) (lim_{xto a} frac{g(x)-(g(a)}{x-a}) $



We know that $forall epsilon exists epsilon' $ such that



$0<|g(x)-g(a)|< epsilon' implies |frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)} - D_xf(g(a))| < epsilon$



We also know that $forall epsilon' exists delta $ such that



$0<|x-a|< delta implies |frac{g(x)-g(a)}{x-a}| < epsilon'$



Thus, we can conclude $forall epsilon exists delta $ such that



$0<|x-a|< delta implies |frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)}| < epsilon$



Thus,



$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=(lim_{xto a} frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)}) (lim_{xto a} frac{g(x)-(g(a)}{x-a}) $



Ignoring $g(x)=g(a)$ (For now) and applying the rule of product of limits, we get



$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=D_x(f circ g)(a)$



Here's where I need help. I can't find a way to get around the case where $g(x)=g(a)$. It would be really helpful if someone were to verify my proof so far as well.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    That is a problem. I believe it is solved by assuming the functions g is analytic and applying the local isolation of zeros theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom
    Jan 10 at 22:12










  • $begingroup$
    @Tom Does the rest of the proof look fine?
    $endgroup$
    – Star Platinum ZA WARUDO
    Jan 10 at 22:26










  • $begingroup$
    No. It starts to go wrong when you substitute $y=g(x)$ since $frac{1}{g(x)-g(a)}$ may not be well defined in a deleted neighborhood of $a$. If you assume $g'(a)$ is non-zero it is sufficient to get such a neighborhood though.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom
    Jan 10 at 22:55










  • $begingroup$
    @Tom I meant apart from when $g(x)=g(a)$, is the proof correct for all other cases?
    $endgroup$
    – Star Platinum ZA WARUDO
    Jan 10 at 23:09










  • $begingroup$
    No, that's what makes the proof not correct. It is a key problem that needs to be sorted in order for it to be a proof.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom
    Jan 10 at 23:17


















1












$begingroup$


We need to show that $D_x(fcirc g)(a)=D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)$



$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=(lim_{yto g(a)} frac{f(y)-f(g(a))}{y-g(a)}) (lim_{xto a} frac{g(x)-(g(a)}{x-a}) $



Substituting $y=g(x)$



$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=(lim_{g(x)to g(a)} frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)}) (lim_{xto a} frac{g(x)-(g(a)}{x-a}) $



We know that $forall epsilon exists epsilon' $ such that



$0<|g(x)-g(a)|< epsilon' implies |frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)} - D_xf(g(a))| < epsilon$



We also know that $forall epsilon' exists delta $ such that



$0<|x-a|< delta implies |frac{g(x)-g(a)}{x-a}| < epsilon'$



Thus, we can conclude $forall epsilon exists delta $ such that



$0<|x-a|< delta implies |frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)}| < epsilon$



Thus,



$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=(lim_{xto a} frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)}) (lim_{xto a} frac{g(x)-(g(a)}{x-a}) $



Ignoring $g(x)=g(a)$ (For now) and applying the rule of product of limits, we get



$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=D_x(f circ g)(a)$



Here's where I need help. I can't find a way to get around the case where $g(x)=g(a)$. It would be really helpful if someone were to verify my proof so far as well.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    That is a problem. I believe it is solved by assuming the functions g is analytic and applying the local isolation of zeros theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom
    Jan 10 at 22:12










  • $begingroup$
    @Tom Does the rest of the proof look fine?
    $endgroup$
    – Star Platinum ZA WARUDO
    Jan 10 at 22:26










  • $begingroup$
    No. It starts to go wrong when you substitute $y=g(x)$ since $frac{1}{g(x)-g(a)}$ may not be well defined in a deleted neighborhood of $a$. If you assume $g'(a)$ is non-zero it is sufficient to get such a neighborhood though.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom
    Jan 10 at 22:55










  • $begingroup$
    @Tom I meant apart from when $g(x)=g(a)$, is the proof correct for all other cases?
    $endgroup$
    – Star Platinum ZA WARUDO
    Jan 10 at 23:09










  • $begingroup$
    No, that's what makes the proof not correct. It is a key problem that needs to be sorted in order for it to be a proof.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom
    Jan 10 at 23:17
















1












1








1


1



$begingroup$


We need to show that $D_x(fcirc g)(a)=D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)$



$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=(lim_{yto g(a)} frac{f(y)-f(g(a))}{y-g(a)}) (lim_{xto a} frac{g(x)-(g(a)}{x-a}) $



Substituting $y=g(x)$



$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=(lim_{g(x)to g(a)} frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)}) (lim_{xto a} frac{g(x)-(g(a)}{x-a}) $



We know that $forall epsilon exists epsilon' $ such that



$0<|g(x)-g(a)|< epsilon' implies |frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)} - D_xf(g(a))| < epsilon$



We also know that $forall epsilon' exists delta $ such that



$0<|x-a|< delta implies |frac{g(x)-g(a)}{x-a}| < epsilon'$



Thus, we can conclude $forall epsilon exists delta $ such that



$0<|x-a|< delta implies |frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)}| < epsilon$



Thus,



$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=(lim_{xto a} frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)}) (lim_{xto a} frac{g(x)-(g(a)}{x-a}) $



Ignoring $g(x)=g(a)$ (For now) and applying the rule of product of limits, we get



$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=D_x(f circ g)(a)$



Here's where I need help. I can't find a way to get around the case where $g(x)=g(a)$. It would be really helpful if someone were to verify my proof so far as well.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




We need to show that $D_x(fcirc g)(a)=D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)$



$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=(lim_{yto g(a)} frac{f(y)-f(g(a))}{y-g(a)}) (lim_{xto a} frac{g(x)-(g(a)}{x-a}) $



Substituting $y=g(x)$



$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=(lim_{g(x)to g(a)} frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)}) (lim_{xto a} frac{g(x)-(g(a)}{x-a}) $



We know that $forall epsilon exists epsilon' $ such that



$0<|g(x)-g(a)|< epsilon' implies |frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)} - D_xf(g(a))| < epsilon$



We also know that $forall epsilon' exists delta $ such that



$0<|x-a|< delta implies |frac{g(x)-g(a)}{x-a}| < epsilon'$



Thus, we can conclude $forall epsilon exists delta $ such that



$0<|x-a|< delta implies |frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)}| < epsilon$



Thus,



$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=(lim_{xto a} frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)}) (lim_{xto a} frac{g(x)-(g(a)}{x-a}) $



Ignoring $g(x)=g(a)$ (For now) and applying the rule of product of limits, we get



$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=D_x(f circ g)(a)$



Here's where I need help. I can't find a way to get around the case where $g(x)=g(a)$. It would be really helpful if someone were to verify my proof so far as well.







real-analysis calculus proof-verification epsilon-delta






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Jan 10 at 16:38









Star Platinum ZA WARUDOStar Platinum ZA WARUDO

33812




33812












  • $begingroup$
    That is a problem. I believe it is solved by assuming the functions g is analytic and applying the local isolation of zeros theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom
    Jan 10 at 22:12










  • $begingroup$
    @Tom Does the rest of the proof look fine?
    $endgroup$
    – Star Platinum ZA WARUDO
    Jan 10 at 22:26










  • $begingroup$
    No. It starts to go wrong when you substitute $y=g(x)$ since $frac{1}{g(x)-g(a)}$ may not be well defined in a deleted neighborhood of $a$. If you assume $g'(a)$ is non-zero it is sufficient to get such a neighborhood though.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom
    Jan 10 at 22:55










  • $begingroup$
    @Tom I meant apart from when $g(x)=g(a)$, is the proof correct for all other cases?
    $endgroup$
    – Star Platinum ZA WARUDO
    Jan 10 at 23:09










  • $begingroup$
    No, that's what makes the proof not correct. It is a key problem that needs to be sorted in order for it to be a proof.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom
    Jan 10 at 23:17




















  • $begingroup$
    That is a problem. I believe it is solved by assuming the functions g is analytic and applying the local isolation of zeros theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom
    Jan 10 at 22:12










  • $begingroup$
    @Tom Does the rest of the proof look fine?
    $endgroup$
    – Star Platinum ZA WARUDO
    Jan 10 at 22:26










  • $begingroup$
    No. It starts to go wrong when you substitute $y=g(x)$ since $frac{1}{g(x)-g(a)}$ may not be well defined in a deleted neighborhood of $a$. If you assume $g'(a)$ is non-zero it is sufficient to get such a neighborhood though.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom
    Jan 10 at 22:55










  • $begingroup$
    @Tom I meant apart from when $g(x)=g(a)$, is the proof correct for all other cases?
    $endgroup$
    – Star Platinum ZA WARUDO
    Jan 10 at 23:09










  • $begingroup$
    No, that's what makes the proof not correct. It is a key problem that needs to be sorted in order for it to be a proof.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom
    Jan 10 at 23:17


















$begingroup$
That is a problem. I believe it is solved by assuming the functions g is analytic and applying the local isolation of zeros theorem.
$endgroup$
– Tom
Jan 10 at 22:12




$begingroup$
That is a problem. I believe it is solved by assuming the functions g is analytic and applying the local isolation of zeros theorem.
$endgroup$
– Tom
Jan 10 at 22:12












$begingroup$
@Tom Does the rest of the proof look fine?
$endgroup$
– Star Platinum ZA WARUDO
Jan 10 at 22:26




$begingroup$
@Tom Does the rest of the proof look fine?
$endgroup$
– Star Platinum ZA WARUDO
Jan 10 at 22:26












$begingroup$
No. It starts to go wrong when you substitute $y=g(x)$ since $frac{1}{g(x)-g(a)}$ may not be well defined in a deleted neighborhood of $a$. If you assume $g'(a)$ is non-zero it is sufficient to get such a neighborhood though.
$endgroup$
– Tom
Jan 10 at 22:55




$begingroup$
No. It starts to go wrong when you substitute $y=g(x)$ since $frac{1}{g(x)-g(a)}$ may not be well defined in a deleted neighborhood of $a$. If you assume $g'(a)$ is non-zero it is sufficient to get such a neighborhood though.
$endgroup$
– Tom
Jan 10 at 22:55












$begingroup$
@Tom I meant apart from when $g(x)=g(a)$, is the proof correct for all other cases?
$endgroup$
– Star Platinum ZA WARUDO
Jan 10 at 23:09




$begingroup$
@Tom I meant apart from when $g(x)=g(a)$, is the proof correct for all other cases?
$endgroup$
– Star Platinum ZA WARUDO
Jan 10 at 23:09












$begingroup$
No, that's what makes the proof not correct. It is a key problem that needs to be sorted in order for it to be a proof.
$endgroup$
– Tom
Jan 10 at 23:17






$begingroup$
No, that's what makes the proof not correct. It is a key problem that needs to be sorted in order for it to be a proof.
$endgroup$
– Tom
Jan 10 at 23:17












1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

$newcommand{R}{mathbb{R}}newcommanddx{frac{d}{dx}}$
$newcommandvara{a}$



Recall



For a function $f$ differentiable at $b$, we may write a linear approximation for $f$ in a neighborhood of $b$:



begin{equation}
newcommand{linapprox}[2]{f'({#1})({#2}-{#1}) + f({#1}) + o({#2})}
f(x)= linapprox{vara}{x} qquad(*)
end{equation}

Where $o(x)$ is the difference between $f'(vara)(x-vara) + f(vara)$ and $f(x)$. The differentiability of $f$ implies that $frac{o(x)-o(vara)}{x-vara}$ converges to $0$, and we will use this fact in a moment.





Let $f,g$ be continuous functions, $g$ differentiable at a point $a$, and $f$ differentiable at $g(a)$. Then, $fcirc g$ is also differentiable at $a$ and $(fcirc g)'(a) = (f'(g(a))g'(a)$



Proof



We write the definition of $(fcirc g)':$
begin{equation}
limlimits_{xrightarrow a}{frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{x-a}}qquad(1)
end{equation}







Now, we will apply $(*)$ to get a linear approximation of $f$ in a neighborhood of $g(a)$ so that $(1)$ becomes the following:
begin{align}
&limlimits_{xrightarrow a}
frac{linapprox{g(a)}{g(x)}
-(linapprox{g(a)}{g(a)})}{x-a}\
&=
limlimits_{xrightarrow a}frac{
f'(g(a))(g(x)-g(a))+o(g(x)) +o(g(a))}{x-a}qquadtext{after cancelling like terms}
end{align}

In the above, $frac{o(x)-o(a)}{x-a}$ converges to $0$ as $x$ converges to $a$. Furthermore, $f'(g(a))$ is a constant, so we can move it outside of the limit.
begin{equation}
(fcirc g)'(a)= f'(g(a))
left[limlimits_{xrightarrow a}
frac{g(x)-g(a)}{x-a}
right]+
limlimits_{xrightarrow a}frac{o(x)-o(a)}{x-a}\\
=f'(g(a))g'(a)
end{equation}



Thus $(fcirc g)'(a)$ exists and is equal to $f'(g(a))g'(a)$






share|cite|improve this answer











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    1 Answer
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    active

    oldest

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    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    0












    $begingroup$

    $newcommand{R}{mathbb{R}}newcommanddx{frac{d}{dx}}$
    $newcommandvara{a}$



    Recall



    For a function $f$ differentiable at $b$, we may write a linear approximation for $f$ in a neighborhood of $b$:



    begin{equation}
    newcommand{linapprox}[2]{f'({#1})({#2}-{#1}) + f({#1}) + o({#2})}
    f(x)= linapprox{vara}{x} qquad(*)
    end{equation}

    Where $o(x)$ is the difference between $f'(vara)(x-vara) + f(vara)$ and $f(x)$. The differentiability of $f$ implies that $frac{o(x)-o(vara)}{x-vara}$ converges to $0$, and we will use this fact in a moment.





    Let $f,g$ be continuous functions, $g$ differentiable at a point $a$, and $f$ differentiable at $g(a)$. Then, $fcirc g$ is also differentiable at $a$ and $(fcirc g)'(a) = (f'(g(a))g'(a)$



    Proof



    We write the definition of $(fcirc g)':$
    begin{equation}
    limlimits_{xrightarrow a}{frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{x-a}}qquad(1)
    end{equation}







    Now, we will apply $(*)$ to get a linear approximation of $f$ in a neighborhood of $g(a)$ so that $(1)$ becomes the following:
    begin{align}
    &limlimits_{xrightarrow a}
    frac{linapprox{g(a)}{g(x)}
    -(linapprox{g(a)}{g(a)})}{x-a}\
    &=
    limlimits_{xrightarrow a}frac{
    f'(g(a))(g(x)-g(a))+o(g(x)) +o(g(a))}{x-a}qquadtext{after cancelling like terms}
    end{align}

    In the above, $frac{o(x)-o(a)}{x-a}$ converges to $0$ as $x$ converges to $a$. Furthermore, $f'(g(a))$ is a constant, so we can move it outside of the limit.
    begin{equation}
    (fcirc g)'(a)= f'(g(a))
    left[limlimits_{xrightarrow a}
    frac{g(x)-g(a)}{x-a}
    right]+
    limlimits_{xrightarrow a}frac{o(x)-o(a)}{x-a}\\
    =f'(g(a))g'(a)
    end{equation}



    Thus $(fcirc g)'(a)$ exists and is equal to $f'(g(a))g'(a)$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      $newcommand{R}{mathbb{R}}newcommanddx{frac{d}{dx}}$
      $newcommandvara{a}$



      Recall



      For a function $f$ differentiable at $b$, we may write a linear approximation for $f$ in a neighborhood of $b$:



      begin{equation}
      newcommand{linapprox}[2]{f'({#1})({#2}-{#1}) + f({#1}) + o({#2})}
      f(x)= linapprox{vara}{x} qquad(*)
      end{equation}

      Where $o(x)$ is the difference between $f'(vara)(x-vara) + f(vara)$ and $f(x)$. The differentiability of $f$ implies that $frac{o(x)-o(vara)}{x-vara}$ converges to $0$, and we will use this fact in a moment.





      Let $f,g$ be continuous functions, $g$ differentiable at a point $a$, and $f$ differentiable at $g(a)$. Then, $fcirc g$ is also differentiable at $a$ and $(fcirc g)'(a) = (f'(g(a))g'(a)$



      Proof



      We write the definition of $(fcirc g)':$
      begin{equation}
      limlimits_{xrightarrow a}{frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{x-a}}qquad(1)
      end{equation}







      Now, we will apply $(*)$ to get a linear approximation of $f$ in a neighborhood of $g(a)$ so that $(1)$ becomes the following:
      begin{align}
      &limlimits_{xrightarrow a}
      frac{linapprox{g(a)}{g(x)}
      -(linapprox{g(a)}{g(a)})}{x-a}\
      &=
      limlimits_{xrightarrow a}frac{
      f'(g(a))(g(x)-g(a))+o(g(x)) +o(g(a))}{x-a}qquadtext{after cancelling like terms}
      end{align}

      In the above, $frac{o(x)-o(a)}{x-a}$ converges to $0$ as $x$ converges to $a$. Furthermore, $f'(g(a))$ is a constant, so we can move it outside of the limit.
      begin{equation}
      (fcirc g)'(a)= f'(g(a))
      left[limlimits_{xrightarrow a}
      frac{g(x)-g(a)}{x-a}
      right]+
      limlimits_{xrightarrow a}frac{o(x)-o(a)}{x-a}\\
      =f'(g(a))g'(a)
      end{equation}



      Thus $(fcirc g)'(a)$ exists and is equal to $f'(g(a))g'(a)$






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        $newcommand{R}{mathbb{R}}newcommanddx{frac{d}{dx}}$
        $newcommandvara{a}$



        Recall



        For a function $f$ differentiable at $b$, we may write a linear approximation for $f$ in a neighborhood of $b$:



        begin{equation}
        newcommand{linapprox}[2]{f'({#1})({#2}-{#1}) + f({#1}) + o({#2})}
        f(x)= linapprox{vara}{x} qquad(*)
        end{equation}

        Where $o(x)$ is the difference between $f'(vara)(x-vara) + f(vara)$ and $f(x)$. The differentiability of $f$ implies that $frac{o(x)-o(vara)}{x-vara}$ converges to $0$, and we will use this fact in a moment.





        Let $f,g$ be continuous functions, $g$ differentiable at a point $a$, and $f$ differentiable at $g(a)$. Then, $fcirc g$ is also differentiable at $a$ and $(fcirc g)'(a) = (f'(g(a))g'(a)$



        Proof



        We write the definition of $(fcirc g)':$
        begin{equation}
        limlimits_{xrightarrow a}{frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{x-a}}qquad(1)
        end{equation}







        Now, we will apply $(*)$ to get a linear approximation of $f$ in a neighborhood of $g(a)$ so that $(1)$ becomes the following:
        begin{align}
        &limlimits_{xrightarrow a}
        frac{linapprox{g(a)}{g(x)}
        -(linapprox{g(a)}{g(a)})}{x-a}\
        &=
        limlimits_{xrightarrow a}frac{
        f'(g(a))(g(x)-g(a))+o(g(x)) +o(g(a))}{x-a}qquadtext{after cancelling like terms}
        end{align}

        In the above, $frac{o(x)-o(a)}{x-a}$ converges to $0$ as $x$ converges to $a$. Furthermore, $f'(g(a))$ is a constant, so we can move it outside of the limit.
        begin{equation}
        (fcirc g)'(a)= f'(g(a))
        left[limlimits_{xrightarrow a}
        frac{g(x)-g(a)}{x-a}
        right]+
        limlimits_{xrightarrow a}frac{o(x)-o(a)}{x-a}\\
        =f'(g(a))g'(a)
        end{equation}



        Thus $(fcirc g)'(a)$ exists and is equal to $f'(g(a))g'(a)$






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        $newcommand{R}{mathbb{R}}newcommanddx{frac{d}{dx}}$
        $newcommandvara{a}$



        Recall



        For a function $f$ differentiable at $b$, we may write a linear approximation for $f$ in a neighborhood of $b$:



        begin{equation}
        newcommand{linapprox}[2]{f'({#1})({#2}-{#1}) + f({#1}) + o({#2})}
        f(x)= linapprox{vara}{x} qquad(*)
        end{equation}

        Where $o(x)$ is the difference between $f'(vara)(x-vara) + f(vara)$ and $f(x)$. The differentiability of $f$ implies that $frac{o(x)-o(vara)}{x-vara}$ converges to $0$, and we will use this fact in a moment.





        Let $f,g$ be continuous functions, $g$ differentiable at a point $a$, and $f$ differentiable at $g(a)$. Then, $fcirc g$ is also differentiable at $a$ and $(fcirc g)'(a) = (f'(g(a))g'(a)$



        Proof



        We write the definition of $(fcirc g)':$
        begin{equation}
        limlimits_{xrightarrow a}{frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{x-a}}qquad(1)
        end{equation}







        Now, we will apply $(*)$ to get a linear approximation of $f$ in a neighborhood of $g(a)$ so that $(1)$ becomes the following:
        begin{align}
        &limlimits_{xrightarrow a}
        frac{linapprox{g(a)}{g(x)}
        -(linapprox{g(a)}{g(a)})}{x-a}\
        &=
        limlimits_{xrightarrow a}frac{
        f'(g(a))(g(x)-g(a))+o(g(x)) +o(g(a))}{x-a}qquadtext{after cancelling like terms}
        end{align}

        In the above, $frac{o(x)-o(a)}{x-a}$ converges to $0$ as $x$ converges to $a$. Furthermore, $f'(g(a))$ is a constant, so we can move it outside of the limit.
        begin{equation}
        (fcirc g)'(a)= f'(g(a))
        left[limlimits_{xrightarrow a}
        frac{g(x)-g(a)}{x-a}
        right]+
        limlimits_{xrightarrow a}frac{o(x)-o(a)}{x-a}\\
        =f'(g(a))g'(a)
        end{equation}



        Thus $(fcirc g)'(a)$ exists and is equal to $f'(g(a))g'(a)$







        share|cite|improve this answer














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        edited Jan 24 at 20:37

























        answered Jan 11 at 0:51









        TomTom

        736




        736






























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