Help with a bit more rigorous proof of the chain rule.
$begingroup$
We need to show that $D_x(fcirc g)(a)=D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)$
$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=(lim_{yto g(a)} frac{f(y)-f(g(a))}{y-g(a)}) (lim_{xto a} frac{g(x)-(g(a)}{x-a}) $
Substituting $y=g(x)$
$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=(lim_{g(x)to g(a)} frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)}) (lim_{xto a} frac{g(x)-(g(a)}{x-a}) $
We know that $forall epsilon exists epsilon' $ such that
$0<|g(x)-g(a)|< epsilon' implies |frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)} - D_xf(g(a))| < epsilon$
We also know that $forall epsilon' exists delta $ such that
$0<|x-a|< delta implies |frac{g(x)-g(a)}{x-a}| < epsilon'$
Thus, we can conclude $forall epsilon exists delta $ such that
$0<|x-a|< delta implies |frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)}| < epsilon$
Thus,
$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=(lim_{xto a} frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)}) (lim_{xto a} frac{g(x)-(g(a)}{x-a}) $
Ignoring $g(x)=g(a)$ (For now) and applying the rule of product of limits, we get
$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=D_x(f circ g)(a)$
Here's where I need help. I can't find a way to get around the case where $g(x)=g(a)$. It would be really helpful if someone were to verify my proof so far as well.
real-analysis calculus proof-verification epsilon-delta
$endgroup$
|
show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
We need to show that $D_x(fcirc g)(a)=D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)$
$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=(lim_{yto g(a)} frac{f(y)-f(g(a))}{y-g(a)}) (lim_{xto a} frac{g(x)-(g(a)}{x-a}) $
Substituting $y=g(x)$
$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=(lim_{g(x)to g(a)} frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)}) (lim_{xto a} frac{g(x)-(g(a)}{x-a}) $
We know that $forall epsilon exists epsilon' $ such that
$0<|g(x)-g(a)|< epsilon' implies |frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)} - D_xf(g(a))| < epsilon$
We also know that $forall epsilon' exists delta $ such that
$0<|x-a|< delta implies |frac{g(x)-g(a)}{x-a}| < epsilon'$
Thus, we can conclude $forall epsilon exists delta $ such that
$0<|x-a|< delta implies |frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)}| < epsilon$
Thus,
$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=(lim_{xto a} frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)}) (lim_{xto a} frac{g(x)-(g(a)}{x-a}) $
Ignoring $g(x)=g(a)$ (For now) and applying the rule of product of limits, we get
$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=D_x(f circ g)(a)$
Here's where I need help. I can't find a way to get around the case where $g(x)=g(a)$. It would be really helpful if someone were to verify my proof so far as well.
real-analysis calculus proof-verification epsilon-delta
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
That is a problem. I believe it is solved by assuming the functions g is analytic and applying the local isolation of zeros theorem.
$endgroup$
– Tom
Jan 10 at 22:12
$begingroup$
@Tom Does the rest of the proof look fine?
$endgroup$
– Star Platinum ZA WARUDO
Jan 10 at 22:26
$begingroup$
No. It starts to go wrong when you substitute $y=g(x)$ since $frac{1}{g(x)-g(a)}$ may not be well defined in a deleted neighborhood of $a$. If you assume $g'(a)$ is non-zero it is sufficient to get such a neighborhood though.
$endgroup$
– Tom
Jan 10 at 22:55
$begingroup$
@Tom I meant apart from when $g(x)=g(a)$, is the proof correct for all other cases?
$endgroup$
– Star Platinum ZA WARUDO
Jan 10 at 23:09
$begingroup$
No, that's what makes the proof not correct. It is a key problem that needs to be sorted in order for it to be a proof.
$endgroup$
– Tom
Jan 10 at 23:17
|
show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
We need to show that $D_x(fcirc g)(a)=D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)$
$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=(lim_{yto g(a)} frac{f(y)-f(g(a))}{y-g(a)}) (lim_{xto a} frac{g(x)-(g(a)}{x-a}) $
Substituting $y=g(x)$
$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=(lim_{g(x)to g(a)} frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)}) (lim_{xto a} frac{g(x)-(g(a)}{x-a}) $
We know that $forall epsilon exists epsilon' $ such that
$0<|g(x)-g(a)|< epsilon' implies |frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)} - D_xf(g(a))| < epsilon$
We also know that $forall epsilon' exists delta $ such that
$0<|x-a|< delta implies |frac{g(x)-g(a)}{x-a}| < epsilon'$
Thus, we can conclude $forall epsilon exists delta $ such that
$0<|x-a|< delta implies |frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)}| < epsilon$
Thus,
$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=(lim_{xto a} frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)}) (lim_{xto a} frac{g(x)-(g(a)}{x-a}) $
Ignoring $g(x)=g(a)$ (For now) and applying the rule of product of limits, we get
$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=D_x(f circ g)(a)$
Here's where I need help. I can't find a way to get around the case where $g(x)=g(a)$. It would be really helpful if someone were to verify my proof so far as well.
real-analysis calculus proof-verification epsilon-delta
$endgroup$
We need to show that $D_x(fcirc g)(a)=D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)$
$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=(lim_{yto g(a)} frac{f(y)-f(g(a))}{y-g(a)}) (lim_{xto a} frac{g(x)-(g(a)}{x-a}) $
Substituting $y=g(x)$
$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=(lim_{g(x)to g(a)} frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)}) (lim_{xto a} frac{g(x)-(g(a)}{x-a}) $
We know that $forall epsilon exists epsilon' $ such that
$0<|g(x)-g(a)|< epsilon' implies |frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)} - D_xf(g(a))| < epsilon$
We also know that $forall epsilon' exists delta $ such that
$0<|x-a|< delta implies |frac{g(x)-g(a)}{x-a}| < epsilon'$
Thus, we can conclude $forall epsilon exists delta $ such that
$0<|x-a|< delta implies |frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)}| < epsilon$
Thus,
$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=(lim_{xto a} frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{g(x)-g(a)}) (lim_{xto a} frac{g(x)-(g(a)}{x-a}) $
Ignoring $g(x)=g(a)$ (For now) and applying the rule of product of limits, we get
$D_xf(g(a)) D_xg(a)=D_x(f circ g)(a)$
Here's where I need help. I can't find a way to get around the case where $g(x)=g(a)$. It would be really helpful if someone were to verify my proof so far as well.
real-analysis calculus proof-verification epsilon-delta
real-analysis calculus proof-verification epsilon-delta
asked Jan 10 at 16:38
Star Platinum ZA WARUDOStar Platinum ZA WARUDO
33812
33812
$begingroup$
That is a problem. I believe it is solved by assuming the functions g is analytic and applying the local isolation of zeros theorem.
$endgroup$
– Tom
Jan 10 at 22:12
$begingroup$
@Tom Does the rest of the proof look fine?
$endgroup$
– Star Platinum ZA WARUDO
Jan 10 at 22:26
$begingroup$
No. It starts to go wrong when you substitute $y=g(x)$ since $frac{1}{g(x)-g(a)}$ may not be well defined in a deleted neighborhood of $a$. If you assume $g'(a)$ is non-zero it is sufficient to get such a neighborhood though.
$endgroup$
– Tom
Jan 10 at 22:55
$begingroup$
@Tom I meant apart from when $g(x)=g(a)$, is the proof correct for all other cases?
$endgroup$
– Star Platinum ZA WARUDO
Jan 10 at 23:09
$begingroup$
No, that's what makes the proof not correct. It is a key problem that needs to be sorted in order for it to be a proof.
$endgroup$
– Tom
Jan 10 at 23:17
|
show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
That is a problem. I believe it is solved by assuming the functions g is analytic and applying the local isolation of zeros theorem.
$endgroup$
– Tom
Jan 10 at 22:12
$begingroup$
@Tom Does the rest of the proof look fine?
$endgroup$
– Star Platinum ZA WARUDO
Jan 10 at 22:26
$begingroup$
No. It starts to go wrong when you substitute $y=g(x)$ since $frac{1}{g(x)-g(a)}$ may not be well defined in a deleted neighborhood of $a$. If you assume $g'(a)$ is non-zero it is sufficient to get such a neighborhood though.
$endgroup$
– Tom
Jan 10 at 22:55
$begingroup$
@Tom I meant apart from when $g(x)=g(a)$, is the proof correct for all other cases?
$endgroup$
– Star Platinum ZA WARUDO
Jan 10 at 23:09
$begingroup$
No, that's what makes the proof not correct. It is a key problem that needs to be sorted in order for it to be a proof.
$endgroup$
– Tom
Jan 10 at 23:17
$begingroup$
That is a problem. I believe it is solved by assuming the functions g is analytic and applying the local isolation of zeros theorem.
$endgroup$
– Tom
Jan 10 at 22:12
$begingroup$
That is a problem. I believe it is solved by assuming the functions g is analytic and applying the local isolation of zeros theorem.
$endgroup$
– Tom
Jan 10 at 22:12
$begingroup$
@Tom Does the rest of the proof look fine?
$endgroup$
– Star Platinum ZA WARUDO
Jan 10 at 22:26
$begingroup$
@Tom Does the rest of the proof look fine?
$endgroup$
– Star Platinum ZA WARUDO
Jan 10 at 22:26
$begingroup$
No. It starts to go wrong when you substitute $y=g(x)$ since $frac{1}{g(x)-g(a)}$ may not be well defined in a deleted neighborhood of $a$. If you assume $g'(a)$ is non-zero it is sufficient to get such a neighborhood though.
$endgroup$
– Tom
Jan 10 at 22:55
$begingroup$
No. It starts to go wrong when you substitute $y=g(x)$ since $frac{1}{g(x)-g(a)}$ may not be well defined in a deleted neighborhood of $a$. If you assume $g'(a)$ is non-zero it is sufficient to get such a neighborhood though.
$endgroup$
– Tom
Jan 10 at 22:55
$begingroup$
@Tom I meant apart from when $g(x)=g(a)$, is the proof correct for all other cases?
$endgroup$
– Star Platinum ZA WARUDO
Jan 10 at 23:09
$begingroup$
@Tom I meant apart from when $g(x)=g(a)$, is the proof correct for all other cases?
$endgroup$
– Star Platinum ZA WARUDO
Jan 10 at 23:09
$begingroup$
No, that's what makes the proof not correct. It is a key problem that needs to be sorted in order for it to be a proof.
$endgroup$
– Tom
Jan 10 at 23:17
$begingroup$
No, that's what makes the proof not correct. It is a key problem that needs to be sorted in order for it to be a proof.
$endgroup$
– Tom
Jan 10 at 23:17
|
show 2 more comments
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
$newcommand{R}{mathbb{R}}newcommanddx{frac{d}{dx}}$
$newcommandvara{a}$
Recall
For a function $f$ differentiable at $b$, we may write a linear approximation for $f$ in a neighborhood of $b$:
begin{equation}
newcommand{linapprox}[2]{f'({#1})({#2}-{#1}) + f({#1}) + o({#2})}
f(x)= linapprox{vara}{x} qquad(*)
end{equation}
Where $o(x)$ is the difference between $f'(vara)(x-vara) + f(vara)$ and $f(x)$. The differentiability of $f$ implies that $frac{o(x)-o(vara)}{x-vara}$ converges to $0$, and we will use this fact in a moment.
Let $f,g$ be continuous functions, $g$ differentiable at a point $a$, and $f$ differentiable at $g(a)$. Then, $fcirc g$ is also differentiable at $a$ and $(fcirc g)'(a) = (f'(g(a))g'(a)$
Proof
We write the definition of $(fcirc g)':$
begin{equation}
limlimits_{xrightarrow a}{frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{x-a}}qquad(1)
end{equation}
Now, we will apply $(*)$ to get a linear approximation of $f$ in a neighborhood of $g(a)$ so that $(1)$ becomes the following:
begin{align}
&limlimits_{xrightarrow a}
frac{linapprox{g(a)}{g(x)}
-(linapprox{g(a)}{g(a)})}{x-a}\
&=
limlimits_{xrightarrow a}frac{
f'(g(a))(g(x)-g(a))+o(g(x)) +o(g(a))}{x-a}qquadtext{after cancelling like terms}
end{align}
In the above, $frac{o(x)-o(a)}{x-a}$ converges to $0$ as $x$ converges to $a$. Furthermore, $f'(g(a))$ is a constant, so we can move it outside of the limit.
begin{equation}
(fcirc g)'(a)= f'(g(a))
left[limlimits_{xrightarrow a}
frac{g(x)-g(a)}{x-a}
right]+
limlimits_{xrightarrow a}frac{o(x)-o(a)}{x-a}\\
=f'(g(a))g'(a)
end{equation}
Thus $(fcirc g)'(a)$ exists and is equal to $f'(g(a))g'(a)$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active
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$begingroup$
$newcommand{R}{mathbb{R}}newcommanddx{frac{d}{dx}}$
$newcommandvara{a}$
Recall
For a function $f$ differentiable at $b$, we may write a linear approximation for $f$ in a neighborhood of $b$:
begin{equation}
newcommand{linapprox}[2]{f'({#1})({#2}-{#1}) + f({#1}) + o({#2})}
f(x)= linapprox{vara}{x} qquad(*)
end{equation}
Where $o(x)$ is the difference between $f'(vara)(x-vara) + f(vara)$ and $f(x)$. The differentiability of $f$ implies that $frac{o(x)-o(vara)}{x-vara}$ converges to $0$, and we will use this fact in a moment.
Let $f,g$ be continuous functions, $g$ differentiable at a point $a$, and $f$ differentiable at $g(a)$. Then, $fcirc g$ is also differentiable at $a$ and $(fcirc g)'(a) = (f'(g(a))g'(a)$
Proof
We write the definition of $(fcirc g)':$
begin{equation}
limlimits_{xrightarrow a}{frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{x-a}}qquad(1)
end{equation}
Now, we will apply $(*)$ to get a linear approximation of $f$ in a neighborhood of $g(a)$ so that $(1)$ becomes the following:
begin{align}
&limlimits_{xrightarrow a}
frac{linapprox{g(a)}{g(x)}
-(linapprox{g(a)}{g(a)})}{x-a}\
&=
limlimits_{xrightarrow a}frac{
f'(g(a))(g(x)-g(a))+o(g(x)) +o(g(a))}{x-a}qquadtext{after cancelling like terms}
end{align}
In the above, $frac{o(x)-o(a)}{x-a}$ converges to $0$ as $x$ converges to $a$. Furthermore, $f'(g(a))$ is a constant, so we can move it outside of the limit.
begin{equation}
(fcirc g)'(a)= f'(g(a))
left[limlimits_{xrightarrow a}
frac{g(x)-g(a)}{x-a}
right]+
limlimits_{xrightarrow a}frac{o(x)-o(a)}{x-a}\\
=f'(g(a))g'(a)
end{equation}
Thus $(fcirc g)'(a)$ exists and is equal to $f'(g(a))g'(a)$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$newcommand{R}{mathbb{R}}newcommanddx{frac{d}{dx}}$
$newcommandvara{a}$
Recall
For a function $f$ differentiable at $b$, we may write a linear approximation for $f$ in a neighborhood of $b$:
begin{equation}
newcommand{linapprox}[2]{f'({#1})({#2}-{#1}) + f({#1}) + o({#2})}
f(x)= linapprox{vara}{x} qquad(*)
end{equation}
Where $o(x)$ is the difference between $f'(vara)(x-vara) + f(vara)$ and $f(x)$. The differentiability of $f$ implies that $frac{o(x)-o(vara)}{x-vara}$ converges to $0$, and we will use this fact in a moment.
Let $f,g$ be continuous functions, $g$ differentiable at a point $a$, and $f$ differentiable at $g(a)$. Then, $fcirc g$ is also differentiable at $a$ and $(fcirc g)'(a) = (f'(g(a))g'(a)$
Proof
We write the definition of $(fcirc g)':$
begin{equation}
limlimits_{xrightarrow a}{frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{x-a}}qquad(1)
end{equation}
Now, we will apply $(*)$ to get a linear approximation of $f$ in a neighborhood of $g(a)$ so that $(1)$ becomes the following:
begin{align}
&limlimits_{xrightarrow a}
frac{linapprox{g(a)}{g(x)}
-(linapprox{g(a)}{g(a)})}{x-a}\
&=
limlimits_{xrightarrow a}frac{
f'(g(a))(g(x)-g(a))+o(g(x)) +o(g(a))}{x-a}qquadtext{after cancelling like terms}
end{align}
In the above, $frac{o(x)-o(a)}{x-a}$ converges to $0$ as $x$ converges to $a$. Furthermore, $f'(g(a))$ is a constant, so we can move it outside of the limit.
begin{equation}
(fcirc g)'(a)= f'(g(a))
left[limlimits_{xrightarrow a}
frac{g(x)-g(a)}{x-a}
right]+
limlimits_{xrightarrow a}frac{o(x)-o(a)}{x-a}\\
=f'(g(a))g'(a)
end{equation}
Thus $(fcirc g)'(a)$ exists and is equal to $f'(g(a))g'(a)$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$newcommand{R}{mathbb{R}}newcommanddx{frac{d}{dx}}$
$newcommandvara{a}$
Recall
For a function $f$ differentiable at $b$, we may write a linear approximation for $f$ in a neighborhood of $b$:
begin{equation}
newcommand{linapprox}[2]{f'({#1})({#2}-{#1}) + f({#1}) + o({#2})}
f(x)= linapprox{vara}{x} qquad(*)
end{equation}
Where $o(x)$ is the difference between $f'(vara)(x-vara) + f(vara)$ and $f(x)$. The differentiability of $f$ implies that $frac{o(x)-o(vara)}{x-vara}$ converges to $0$, and we will use this fact in a moment.
Let $f,g$ be continuous functions, $g$ differentiable at a point $a$, and $f$ differentiable at $g(a)$. Then, $fcirc g$ is also differentiable at $a$ and $(fcirc g)'(a) = (f'(g(a))g'(a)$
Proof
We write the definition of $(fcirc g)':$
begin{equation}
limlimits_{xrightarrow a}{frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{x-a}}qquad(1)
end{equation}
Now, we will apply $(*)$ to get a linear approximation of $f$ in a neighborhood of $g(a)$ so that $(1)$ becomes the following:
begin{align}
&limlimits_{xrightarrow a}
frac{linapprox{g(a)}{g(x)}
-(linapprox{g(a)}{g(a)})}{x-a}\
&=
limlimits_{xrightarrow a}frac{
f'(g(a))(g(x)-g(a))+o(g(x)) +o(g(a))}{x-a}qquadtext{after cancelling like terms}
end{align}
In the above, $frac{o(x)-o(a)}{x-a}$ converges to $0$ as $x$ converges to $a$. Furthermore, $f'(g(a))$ is a constant, so we can move it outside of the limit.
begin{equation}
(fcirc g)'(a)= f'(g(a))
left[limlimits_{xrightarrow a}
frac{g(x)-g(a)}{x-a}
right]+
limlimits_{xrightarrow a}frac{o(x)-o(a)}{x-a}\\
=f'(g(a))g'(a)
end{equation}
Thus $(fcirc g)'(a)$ exists and is equal to $f'(g(a))g'(a)$
$endgroup$
$newcommand{R}{mathbb{R}}newcommanddx{frac{d}{dx}}$
$newcommandvara{a}$
Recall
For a function $f$ differentiable at $b$, we may write a linear approximation for $f$ in a neighborhood of $b$:
begin{equation}
newcommand{linapprox}[2]{f'({#1})({#2}-{#1}) + f({#1}) + o({#2})}
f(x)= linapprox{vara}{x} qquad(*)
end{equation}
Where $o(x)$ is the difference between $f'(vara)(x-vara) + f(vara)$ and $f(x)$. The differentiability of $f$ implies that $frac{o(x)-o(vara)}{x-vara}$ converges to $0$, and we will use this fact in a moment.
Let $f,g$ be continuous functions, $g$ differentiable at a point $a$, and $f$ differentiable at $g(a)$. Then, $fcirc g$ is also differentiable at $a$ and $(fcirc g)'(a) = (f'(g(a))g'(a)$
Proof
We write the definition of $(fcirc g)':$
begin{equation}
limlimits_{xrightarrow a}{frac{f(g(x))-f(g(a))}{x-a}}qquad(1)
end{equation}
Now, we will apply $(*)$ to get a linear approximation of $f$ in a neighborhood of $g(a)$ so that $(1)$ becomes the following:
begin{align}
&limlimits_{xrightarrow a}
frac{linapprox{g(a)}{g(x)}
-(linapprox{g(a)}{g(a)})}{x-a}\
&=
limlimits_{xrightarrow a}frac{
f'(g(a))(g(x)-g(a))+o(g(x)) +o(g(a))}{x-a}qquadtext{after cancelling like terms}
end{align}
In the above, $frac{o(x)-o(a)}{x-a}$ converges to $0$ as $x$ converges to $a$. Furthermore, $f'(g(a))$ is a constant, so we can move it outside of the limit.
begin{equation}
(fcirc g)'(a)= f'(g(a))
left[limlimits_{xrightarrow a}
frac{g(x)-g(a)}{x-a}
right]+
limlimits_{xrightarrow a}frac{o(x)-o(a)}{x-a}\\
=f'(g(a))g'(a)
end{equation}
Thus $(fcirc g)'(a)$ exists and is equal to $f'(g(a))g'(a)$
edited Jan 24 at 20:37
answered Jan 11 at 0:51
TomTom
736
736
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
That is a problem. I believe it is solved by assuming the functions g is analytic and applying the local isolation of zeros theorem.
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– Tom
Jan 10 at 22:12
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@Tom Does the rest of the proof look fine?
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– Star Platinum ZA WARUDO
Jan 10 at 22:26
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No. It starts to go wrong when you substitute $y=g(x)$ since $frac{1}{g(x)-g(a)}$ may not be well defined in a deleted neighborhood of $a$. If you assume $g'(a)$ is non-zero it is sufficient to get such a neighborhood though.
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– Tom
Jan 10 at 22:55
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@Tom I meant apart from when $g(x)=g(a)$, is the proof correct for all other cases?
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– Star Platinum ZA WARUDO
Jan 10 at 23:09
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No, that's what makes the proof not correct. It is a key problem that needs to be sorted in order for it to be a proof.
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– Tom
Jan 10 at 23:17