Negatively correlated random variables Chebyshev bound?
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It is quite well known that the Chernoff bound applies to negatively correlated binary random variables (see e.g. Theorem 1.16 here). Does there exist a reference for Chebyshev-type bound for negatively correlated binary variables?
probability inequality distribution-tails
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
It is quite well known that the Chernoff bound applies to negatively correlated binary random variables (see e.g. Theorem 1.16 here). Does there exist a reference for Chebyshev-type bound for negatively correlated binary variables?
probability inequality distribution-tails
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As mentioned in the comment on my answer, the main question is why you need a reference, if you agree it's "fairly straightforward." Is it for a research paper? In which case you can just state it as a fact (or, if you feel you owe it to the reader, include a short proof "for completeness"). There is no need to provide a reference for all the statements -- for instance, you wouldn't provide one for Markov's inequality or Chebyshev, and this is of the same level.
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– Clement C.
Jan 11 at 3:42
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It is quite well known that the Chernoff bound applies to negatively correlated binary random variables (see e.g. Theorem 1.16 here). Does there exist a reference for Chebyshev-type bound for negatively correlated binary variables?
probability inequality distribution-tails
$endgroup$
It is quite well known that the Chernoff bound applies to negatively correlated binary random variables (see e.g. Theorem 1.16 here). Does there exist a reference for Chebyshev-type bound for negatively correlated binary variables?
probability inequality distribution-tails
probability inequality distribution-tails
edited Jan 9 at 3:45


Clement C.
50.2k33889
50.2k33889
asked Jan 9 at 3:20
user1246462user1246462
1503
1503
$begingroup$
As mentioned in the comment on my answer, the main question is why you need a reference, if you agree it's "fairly straightforward." Is it for a research paper? In which case you can just state it as a fact (or, if you feel you owe it to the reader, include a short proof "for completeness"). There is no need to provide a reference for all the statements -- for instance, you wouldn't provide one for Markov's inequality or Chebyshev, and this is of the same level.
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Jan 11 at 3:42
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As mentioned in the comment on my answer, the main question is why you need a reference, if you agree it's "fairly straightforward." Is it for a research paper? In which case you can just state it as a fact (or, if you feel you owe it to the reader, include a short proof "for completeness"). There is no need to provide a reference for all the statements -- for instance, you wouldn't provide one for Markov's inequality or Chebyshev, and this is of the same level.
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Jan 11 at 3:42
$begingroup$
As mentioned in the comment on my answer, the main question is why you need a reference, if you agree it's "fairly straightforward." Is it for a research paper? In which case you can just state it as a fact (or, if you feel you owe it to the reader, include a short proof "for completeness"). There is no need to provide a reference for all the statements -- for instance, you wouldn't provide one for Markov's inequality or Chebyshev, and this is of the same level.
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Jan 11 at 3:42
$begingroup$
As mentioned in the comment on my answer, the main question is why you need a reference, if you agree it's "fairly straightforward." Is it for a research paper? In which case you can just state it as a fact (or, if you feel you owe it to the reader, include a short proof "for completeness"). There is no need to provide a reference for all the statements -- for instance, you wouldn't provide one for Markov's inequality or Chebyshev, and this is of the same level.
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Jan 11 at 3:42
add a comment |
1 Answer
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$begingroup$
Why do you need a reference, instead of just deriving it or stating it as a fact? If the r.v.'s $(X_k)_{1leq k leq n}$ are negatively correlated (and have finite variance), then you have
$$
operatorname{Var}sum_{k=1}^n X_k leq sum_{k=1}^n operatorname{Var} X_k
$$
(since all covariances are non-positive: expand the variance on the LHS); and therefore you can use Chebyshev's inequality directly:
$$
forall a>0,qquad mathbb{P}left{leftlvertsum_{k=1}^n X_k - sum_{k=1}^n mathbb{E}X_krightrvert > aright}leq frac{operatorname{Var}sum_{k=1}^n X_k}{a^2} leq frac{sum_{k=1}^n operatorname{Var}X_k}{a^2} tag{$dagger$}
$$
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$begingroup$
The derivation is fairly straightforward and I was more concerned about providing the appropriate citation.
$endgroup$
– user1246462
Jan 9 at 18:15
$begingroup$
As you say, it is pretty straightforward. Either state it as a fact (folklore? Immediate fact?) or include a short proof "for completeness". (Not everything needs a reference...) @user1246462
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Jan 9 at 18:18
add a comment |
Your Answer
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active
oldest
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votes
$begingroup$
Why do you need a reference, instead of just deriving it or stating it as a fact? If the r.v.'s $(X_k)_{1leq k leq n}$ are negatively correlated (and have finite variance), then you have
$$
operatorname{Var}sum_{k=1}^n X_k leq sum_{k=1}^n operatorname{Var} X_k
$$
(since all covariances are non-positive: expand the variance on the LHS); and therefore you can use Chebyshev's inequality directly:
$$
forall a>0,qquad mathbb{P}left{leftlvertsum_{k=1}^n X_k - sum_{k=1}^n mathbb{E}X_krightrvert > aright}leq frac{operatorname{Var}sum_{k=1}^n X_k}{a^2} leq frac{sum_{k=1}^n operatorname{Var}X_k}{a^2} tag{$dagger$}
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
The derivation is fairly straightforward and I was more concerned about providing the appropriate citation.
$endgroup$
– user1246462
Jan 9 at 18:15
$begingroup$
As you say, it is pretty straightforward. Either state it as a fact (folklore? Immediate fact?) or include a short proof "for completeness". (Not everything needs a reference...) @user1246462
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Jan 9 at 18:18
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Why do you need a reference, instead of just deriving it or stating it as a fact? If the r.v.'s $(X_k)_{1leq k leq n}$ are negatively correlated (and have finite variance), then you have
$$
operatorname{Var}sum_{k=1}^n X_k leq sum_{k=1}^n operatorname{Var} X_k
$$
(since all covariances are non-positive: expand the variance on the LHS); and therefore you can use Chebyshev's inequality directly:
$$
forall a>0,qquad mathbb{P}left{leftlvertsum_{k=1}^n X_k - sum_{k=1}^n mathbb{E}X_krightrvert > aright}leq frac{operatorname{Var}sum_{k=1}^n X_k}{a^2} leq frac{sum_{k=1}^n operatorname{Var}X_k}{a^2} tag{$dagger$}
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
The derivation is fairly straightforward and I was more concerned about providing the appropriate citation.
$endgroup$
– user1246462
Jan 9 at 18:15
$begingroup$
As you say, it is pretty straightforward. Either state it as a fact (folklore? Immediate fact?) or include a short proof "for completeness". (Not everything needs a reference...) @user1246462
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Jan 9 at 18:18
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Why do you need a reference, instead of just deriving it or stating it as a fact? If the r.v.'s $(X_k)_{1leq k leq n}$ are negatively correlated (and have finite variance), then you have
$$
operatorname{Var}sum_{k=1}^n X_k leq sum_{k=1}^n operatorname{Var} X_k
$$
(since all covariances are non-positive: expand the variance on the LHS); and therefore you can use Chebyshev's inequality directly:
$$
forall a>0,qquad mathbb{P}left{leftlvertsum_{k=1}^n X_k - sum_{k=1}^n mathbb{E}X_krightrvert > aright}leq frac{operatorname{Var}sum_{k=1}^n X_k}{a^2} leq frac{sum_{k=1}^n operatorname{Var}X_k}{a^2} tag{$dagger$}
$$
$endgroup$
Why do you need a reference, instead of just deriving it or stating it as a fact? If the r.v.'s $(X_k)_{1leq k leq n}$ are negatively correlated (and have finite variance), then you have
$$
operatorname{Var}sum_{k=1}^n X_k leq sum_{k=1}^n operatorname{Var} X_k
$$
(since all covariances are non-positive: expand the variance on the LHS); and therefore you can use Chebyshev's inequality directly:
$$
forall a>0,qquad mathbb{P}left{leftlvertsum_{k=1}^n X_k - sum_{k=1}^n mathbb{E}X_krightrvert > aright}leq frac{operatorname{Var}sum_{k=1}^n X_k}{a^2} leq frac{sum_{k=1}^n operatorname{Var}X_k}{a^2} tag{$dagger$}
$$
answered Jan 9 at 3:31


Clement C.Clement C.
50.2k33889
50.2k33889
$begingroup$
The derivation is fairly straightforward and I was more concerned about providing the appropriate citation.
$endgroup$
– user1246462
Jan 9 at 18:15
$begingroup$
As you say, it is pretty straightforward. Either state it as a fact (folklore? Immediate fact?) or include a short proof "for completeness". (Not everything needs a reference...) @user1246462
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Jan 9 at 18:18
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The derivation is fairly straightforward and I was more concerned about providing the appropriate citation.
$endgroup$
– user1246462
Jan 9 at 18:15
$begingroup$
As you say, it is pretty straightforward. Either state it as a fact (folklore? Immediate fact?) or include a short proof "for completeness". (Not everything needs a reference...) @user1246462
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Jan 9 at 18:18
$begingroup$
The derivation is fairly straightforward and I was more concerned about providing the appropriate citation.
$endgroup$
– user1246462
Jan 9 at 18:15
$begingroup$
The derivation is fairly straightforward and I was more concerned about providing the appropriate citation.
$endgroup$
– user1246462
Jan 9 at 18:15
$begingroup$
As you say, it is pretty straightforward. Either state it as a fact (folklore? Immediate fact?) or include a short proof "for completeness". (Not everything needs a reference...) @user1246462
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Jan 9 at 18:18
$begingroup$
As you say, it is pretty straightforward. Either state it as a fact (folklore? Immediate fact?) or include a short proof "for completeness". (Not everything needs a reference...) @user1246462
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Jan 9 at 18:18
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
As mentioned in the comment on my answer, the main question is why you need a reference, if you agree it's "fairly straightforward." Is it for a research paper? In which case you can just state it as a fact (or, if you feel you owe it to the reader, include a short proof "for completeness"). There is no need to provide a reference for all the statements -- for instance, you wouldn't provide one for Markov's inequality or Chebyshev, and this is of the same level.
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Jan 11 at 3:42