Negatively correlated random variables Chebyshev bound?












2












$begingroup$


It is quite well known that the Chernoff bound applies to negatively correlated binary random variables (see e.g. Theorem 1.16 here). Does there exist a reference for Chebyshev-type bound for negatively correlated binary variables?










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    As mentioned in the comment on my answer, the main question is why you need a reference, if you agree it's "fairly straightforward." Is it for a research paper? In which case you can just state it as a fact (or, if you feel you owe it to the reader, include a short proof "for completeness"). There is no need to provide a reference for all the statements -- for instance, you wouldn't provide one for Markov's inequality or Chebyshev, and this is of the same level.
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Jan 11 at 3:42
















2












$begingroup$


It is quite well known that the Chernoff bound applies to negatively correlated binary random variables (see e.g. Theorem 1.16 here). Does there exist a reference for Chebyshev-type bound for negatively correlated binary variables?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    As mentioned in the comment on my answer, the main question is why you need a reference, if you agree it's "fairly straightforward." Is it for a research paper? In which case you can just state it as a fact (or, if you feel you owe it to the reader, include a short proof "for completeness"). There is no need to provide a reference for all the statements -- for instance, you wouldn't provide one for Markov's inequality or Chebyshev, and this is of the same level.
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Jan 11 at 3:42














2












2








2





$begingroup$


It is quite well known that the Chernoff bound applies to negatively correlated binary random variables (see e.g. Theorem 1.16 here). Does there exist a reference for Chebyshev-type bound for negatively correlated binary variables?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




It is quite well known that the Chernoff bound applies to negatively correlated binary random variables (see e.g. Theorem 1.16 here). Does there exist a reference for Chebyshev-type bound for negatively correlated binary variables?







probability inequality distribution-tails






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 9 at 3:45









Clement C.

50.2k33889




50.2k33889










asked Jan 9 at 3:20









user1246462user1246462

1503




1503












  • $begingroup$
    As mentioned in the comment on my answer, the main question is why you need a reference, if you agree it's "fairly straightforward." Is it for a research paper? In which case you can just state it as a fact (or, if you feel you owe it to the reader, include a short proof "for completeness"). There is no need to provide a reference for all the statements -- for instance, you wouldn't provide one for Markov's inequality or Chebyshev, and this is of the same level.
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Jan 11 at 3:42


















  • $begingroup$
    As mentioned in the comment on my answer, the main question is why you need a reference, if you agree it's "fairly straightforward." Is it for a research paper? In which case you can just state it as a fact (or, if you feel you owe it to the reader, include a short proof "for completeness"). There is no need to provide a reference for all the statements -- for instance, you wouldn't provide one for Markov's inequality or Chebyshev, and this is of the same level.
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Jan 11 at 3:42
















$begingroup$
As mentioned in the comment on my answer, the main question is why you need a reference, if you agree it's "fairly straightforward." Is it for a research paper? In which case you can just state it as a fact (or, if you feel you owe it to the reader, include a short proof "for completeness"). There is no need to provide a reference for all the statements -- for instance, you wouldn't provide one for Markov's inequality or Chebyshev, and this is of the same level.
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Jan 11 at 3:42




$begingroup$
As mentioned in the comment on my answer, the main question is why you need a reference, if you agree it's "fairly straightforward." Is it for a research paper? In which case you can just state it as a fact (or, if you feel you owe it to the reader, include a short proof "for completeness"). There is no need to provide a reference for all the statements -- for instance, you wouldn't provide one for Markov's inequality or Chebyshev, and this is of the same level.
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Jan 11 at 3:42










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

Why do you need a reference, instead of just deriving it or stating it as a fact? If the r.v.'s $(X_k)_{1leq k leq n}$ are negatively correlated (and have finite variance), then you have
$$
operatorname{Var}sum_{k=1}^n X_k leq sum_{k=1}^n operatorname{Var} X_k
$$

(since all covariances are non-positive: expand the variance on the LHS); and therefore you can use Chebyshev's inequality directly:
$$
forall a>0,qquad mathbb{P}left{leftlvertsum_{k=1}^n X_k - sum_{k=1}^n mathbb{E}X_krightrvert > aright}leq frac{operatorname{Var}sum_{k=1}^n X_k}{a^2} leq frac{sum_{k=1}^n operatorname{Var}X_k}{a^2} tag{$dagger$}
$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    The derivation is fairly straightforward and I was more concerned about providing the appropriate citation.
    $endgroup$
    – user1246462
    Jan 9 at 18:15










  • $begingroup$
    As you say, it is pretty straightforward. Either state it as a fact (folklore? Immediate fact?) or include a short proof "for completeness". (Not everything needs a reference...) @user1246462
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Jan 9 at 18:18











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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes









0












$begingroup$

Why do you need a reference, instead of just deriving it or stating it as a fact? If the r.v.'s $(X_k)_{1leq k leq n}$ are negatively correlated (and have finite variance), then you have
$$
operatorname{Var}sum_{k=1}^n X_k leq sum_{k=1}^n operatorname{Var} X_k
$$

(since all covariances are non-positive: expand the variance on the LHS); and therefore you can use Chebyshev's inequality directly:
$$
forall a>0,qquad mathbb{P}left{leftlvertsum_{k=1}^n X_k - sum_{k=1}^n mathbb{E}X_krightrvert > aright}leq frac{operatorname{Var}sum_{k=1}^n X_k}{a^2} leq frac{sum_{k=1}^n operatorname{Var}X_k}{a^2} tag{$dagger$}
$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    The derivation is fairly straightforward and I was more concerned about providing the appropriate citation.
    $endgroup$
    – user1246462
    Jan 9 at 18:15










  • $begingroup$
    As you say, it is pretty straightforward. Either state it as a fact (folklore? Immediate fact?) or include a short proof "for completeness". (Not everything needs a reference...) @user1246462
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Jan 9 at 18:18
















0












$begingroup$

Why do you need a reference, instead of just deriving it or stating it as a fact? If the r.v.'s $(X_k)_{1leq k leq n}$ are negatively correlated (and have finite variance), then you have
$$
operatorname{Var}sum_{k=1}^n X_k leq sum_{k=1}^n operatorname{Var} X_k
$$

(since all covariances are non-positive: expand the variance on the LHS); and therefore you can use Chebyshev's inequality directly:
$$
forall a>0,qquad mathbb{P}left{leftlvertsum_{k=1}^n X_k - sum_{k=1}^n mathbb{E}X_krightrvert > aright}leq frac{operatorname{Var}sum_{k=1}^n X_k}{a^2} leq frac{sum_{k=1}^n operatorname{Var}X_k}{a^2} tag{$dagger$}
$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    The derivation is fairly straightforward and I was more concerned about providing the appropriate citation.
    $endgroup$
    – user1246462
    Jan 9 at 18:15










  • $begingroup$
    As you say, it is pretty straightforward. Either state it as a fact (folklore? Immediate fact?) or include a short proof "for completeness". (Not everything needs a reference...) @user1246462
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Jan 9 at 18:18














0












0








0





$begingroup$

Why do you need a reference, instead of just deriving it or stating it as a fact? If the r.v.'s $(X_k)_{1leq k leq n}$ are negatively correlated (and have finite variance), then you have
$$
operatorname{Var}sum_{k=1}^n X_k leq sum_{k=1}^n operatorname{Var} X_k
$$

(since all covariances are non-positive: expand the variance on the LHS); and therefore you can use Chebyshev's inequality directly:
$$
forall a>0,qquad mathbb{P}left{leftlvertsum_{k=1}^n X_k - sum_{k=1}^n mathbb{E}X_krightrvert > aright}leq frac{operatorname{Var}sum_{k=1}^n X_k}{a^2} leq frac{sum_{k=1}^n operatorname{Var}X_k}{a^2} tag{$dagger$}
$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Why do you need a reference, instead of just deriving it or stating it as a fact? If the r.v.'s $(X_k)_{1leq k leq n}$ are negatively correlated (and have finite variance), then you have
$$
operatorname{Var}sum_{k=1}^n X_k leq sum_{k=1}^n operatorname{Var} X_k
$$

(since all covariances are non-positive: expand the variance on the LHS); and therefore you can use Chebyshev's inequality directly:
$$
forall a>0,qquad mathbb{P}left{leftlvertsum_{k=1}^n X_k - sum_{k=1}^n mathbb{E}X_krightrvert > aright}leq frac{operatorname{Var}sum_{k=1}^n X_k}{a^2} leq frac{sum_{k=1}^n operatorname{Var}X_k}{a^2} tag{$dagger$}
$$







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 9 at 3:31









Clement C.Clement C.

50.2k33889




50.2k33889












  • $begingroup$
    The derivation is fairly straightforward and I was more concerned about providing the appropriate citation.
    $endgroup$
    – user1246462
    Jan 9 at 18:15










  • $begingroup$
    As you say, it is pretty straightforward. Either state it as a fact (folklore? Immediate fact?) or include a short proof "for completeness". (Not everything needs a reference...) @user1246462
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Jan 9 at 18:18


















  • $begingroup$
    The derivation is fairly straightforward and I was more concerned about providing the appropriate citation.
    $endgroup$
    – user1246462
    Jan 9 at 18:15










  • $begingroup$
    As you say, it is pretty straightforward. Either state it as a fact (folklore? Immediate fact?) or include a short proof "for completeness". (Not everything needs a reference...) @user1246462
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Jan 9 at 18:18
















$begingroup$
The derivation is fairly straightforward and I was more concerned about providing the appropriate citation.
$endgroup$
– user1246462
Jan 9 at 18:15




$begingroup$
The derivation is fairly straightforward and I was more concerned about providing the appropriate citation.
$endgroup$
– user1246462
Jan 9 at 18:15












$begingroup$
As you say, it is pretty straightforward. Either state it as a fact (folklore? Immediate fact?) or include a short proof "for completeness". (Not everything needs a reference...) @user1246462
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Jan 9 at 18:18




$begingroup$
As you say, it is pretty straightforward. Either state it as a fact (folklore? Immediate fact?) or include a short proof "for completeness". (Not everything needs a reference...) @user1246462
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Jan 9 at 18:18


















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