Sign problem when working out a simple pendulum's differential equation
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I was trying to work out the differential equation for a simple pendulum, and got a sign mistake along the way (among other things I guess). Here's my reasoning:
assuming that the friction forces are negligible, one may use the conservation of energy principle. When $theta(t)=theta_0$ (position 1), we have
$E_{mech_1}=U_1$ $quad$ (since $K_1=0$)
and that at the equilibrium point (position 2)
$E_{mech_2}=K_2$ $quad$ (since $U_2=0$)
and therefore
$K_2=U_1 iff frac{1}{2}mL^2dot{theta}^2color{red}{boldsymbol{-}}mgL(1-costheta)=0.$
It does however make sense to me that (ref.)
$E_{mech}=U+K$
but I don't really see my mistake. Is it my interpretation of the potential $U$?
classical-mechanics
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I was trying to work out the differential equation for a simple pendulum, and got a sign mistake along the way (among other things I guess). Here's my reasoning:
assuming that the friction forces are negligible, one may use the conservation of energy principle. When $theta(t)=theta_0$ (position 1), we have
$E_{mech_1}=U_1$ $quad$ (since $K_1=0$)
and that at the equilibrium point (position 2)
$E_{mech_2}=K_2$ $quad$ (since $U_2=0$)
and therefore
$K_2=U_1 iff frac{1}{2}mL^2dot{theta}^2color{red}{boldsymbol{-}}mgL(1-costheta)=0.$
It does however make sense to me that (ref.)
$E_{mech}=U+K$
but I don't really see my mistake. Is it my interpretation of the potential $U$?
classical-mechanics
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I was trying to work out the differential equation for a simple pendulum, and got a sign mistake along the way (among other things I guess). Here's my reasoning:
assuming that the friction forces are negligible, one may use the conservation of energy principle. When $theta(t)=theta_0$ (position 1), we have
$E_{mech_1}=U_1$ $quad$ (since $K_1=0$)
and that at the equilibrium point (position 2)
$E_{mech_2}=K_2$ $quad$ (since $U_2=0$)
and therefore
$K_2=U_1 iff frac{1}{2}mL^2dot{theta}^2color{red}{boldsymbol{-}}mgL(1-costheta)=0.$
It does however make sense to me that (ref.)
$E_{mech}=U+K$
but I don't really see my mistake. Is it my interpretation of the potential $U$?
classical-mechanics
$endgroup$
I was trying to work out the differential equation for a simple pendulum, and got a sign mistake along the way (among other things I guess). Here's my reasoning:
assuming that the friction forces are negligible, one may use the conservation of energy principle. When $theta(t)=theta_0$ (position 1), we have
$E_{mech_1}=U_1$ $quad$ (since $K_1=0$)
and that at the equilibrium point (position 2)
$E_{mech_2}=K_2$ $quad$ (since $U_2=0$)
and therefore
$K_2=U_1 iff frac{1}{2}mL^2dot{theta}^2color{red}{boldsymbol{-}}mgL(1-costheta)=0.$
It does however make sense to me that (ref.)
$E_{mech}=U+K$
but I don't really see my mistake. Is it my interpretation of the potential $U$?
classical-mechanics
classical-mechanics
asked Jan 12 at 23:06
ChrisChris
104
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$begingroup$
Write the equation as
$$
K_2=U_1 iff frac{1}{2}mL^2dot{theta_2}^2color{red}{boldsymbol{-}}mgL(1-costheta_1)=0,
$$
then it is correct. You are computing the relation of maximum angle and maximal velocity, these events happen at different positions, as you also wrote above.
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
Write the equation as
$$
K_2=U_1 iff frac{1}{2}mL^2dot{theta_2}^2color{red}{boldsymbol{-}}mgL(1-costheta_1)=0,
$$
then it is correct. You are computing the relation of maximum angle and maximal velocity, these events happen at different positions, as you also wrote above.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Write the equation as
$$
K_2=U_1 iff frac{1}{2}mL^2dot{theta_2}^2color{red}{boldsymbol{-}}mgL(1-costheta_1)=0,
$$
then it is correct. You are computing the relation of maximum angle and maximal velocity, these events happen at different positions, as you also wrote above.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Write the equation as
$$
K_2=U_1 iff frac{1}{2}mL^2dot{theta_2}^2color{red}{boldsymbol{-}}mgL(1-costheta_1)=0,
$$
then it is correct. You are computing the relation of maximum angle and maximal velocity, these events happen at different positions, as you also wrote above.
$endgroup$
Write the equation as
$$
K_2=U_1 iff frac{1}{2}mL^2dot{theta_2}^2color{red}{boldsymbol{-}}mgL(1-costheta_1)=0,
$$
then it is correct. You are computing the relation of maximum angle and maximal velocity, these events happen at different positions, as you also wrote above.
answered Jan 12 at 23:59
LutzLLutzL
58.5k42054
58.5k42054
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